1Question
A 22-year-old client asks how to check his testicles. After teaching, which statement by the client shows a need for further teaching?
- "I will do the check during or right after a warm shower."
- "It is normal for one testicle to hang lower or be a little larger than the other."
- "The soft cord-like structure along the back of each testicle is a normal part."
- "A lump that does not hurt is not something I need to report."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. "A lump that does not hurt is not something I need to report."
Topic: testicular self-awareness teaching
Testicular cancer most often presents as a painless lump or a firm area, swelling or a feeling of heaviness, so any new lump must be reported whether or not it hurts. Warmth relaxes the scrotum for examination, slight asymmetry is normal, and the epididymis is a normal soft structure behind each testicle.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This is correct: warmth relaxes the scrotal skin and makes the testicles easier to feel.
- B – This is correct: mild asymmetry in size and position is a normal finding.
- C – This is correct: the epididymis is a normal structure and should not be mistaken for a lump.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
2Question
A nurse is teaching a group of women about breast self-awareness. Which changes should the nurse tell the group to report to a health care provider promptly?
Select all that apply.
- A new lump felt in the armpit.
- Tenderness in both breasts before each menstrual period that eases afterward.
- An area of skin that looks dimpled or like the peel of an orange.
- One breast that has always been slightly larger than the other.
- A nipple that has recently turned inward.
- Bloody discharge from one nipple that appears without squeezing.
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, C, E and F.
- A – A new lump felt in the armpit.
- C – An area of skin that looks dimpled or like the peel of an orange.
- E – A nipple that has recently turned inward.
- F – Bloody discharge from one nipple that appears without squeezing.
Topic: breast self-awareness teaching
Breast self-awareness means knowing how the breasts normally look and feel and reporting a change. A new lump in the breast or axilla, skin dimpling or an orange-peel texture, recent nipple retraction and spontaneous bloody discharge from one nipple are warning signs. Cyclic tenderness in both breasts and long-standing mild asymmetry are common normal findings.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Bilateral tenderness that follows the menstrual cycle and resolves is a common hormonal pattern, not a warning sign.
- D – Mild asymmetry that has always been present is normal; a recent change in size or shape would be reportable.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
3Question
A 41-year-old client says, "I feel fine. Why do you want to check my blood pressure and cholesterol?" Which response by the nurse is best?
- "These tests will show whether you already have heart disease."
- "If the results are normal, you will not need to think about diet or exercise."
- "High blood pressure and high cholesterol usually cause no symptoms, so testing is how we find them before they cause damage."
- "You would normally notice headaches or dizziness first, but the clinic checks everyone."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. "High blood pressure and high cholesterol usually cause no symptoms, so testing is how we find them before they cause damage."
Topic: purpose of blood pressure and lipid screening
Hypertension and high blood lipids are usually silent while they damage blood vessels, the heart, brain and kidneys. Screening is secondary prevention: it finds a risk factor in a person without symptoms so that it can be treated before a heart attack, stroke or kidney disease occurs.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Blood pressure and lipid results identify risk factors; they do not diagnose heart disease.
- B – A normal result does not remove the value of a healthy diet and activity, which keep the values normal.
- D – This repeats the misconception; most people with high blood pressure have no symptoms.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
4Question
A client telephones the clinic after a home stool test for hidden blood was reported as positive and says, "So this means I have colon cancer." Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
- "The test is very reliable, so you should prepare yourself for that diagnosis."
- "A positive screening test means further testing is needed to find the cause; it is not a diagnosis."
- "These tests are often wrong, so repeat it next year and see whether it changes."
- "It is most likely from hemorrhoids, so no other testing is needed."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. "A positive screening test means further testing is needed to find the cause; it is not a diagnosis."
Topic: screening vs diagnostic test
A screening test sorts people into those who probably do not have a condition and those who need a diagnostic test. A positive stool test shows blood, which has many causes, and must be followed by a diagnostic examination of the colon. It neither confirms cancer nor can be ignored.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This treats a screening result as a diagnosis and causes needless alarm; the cause of the blood is unknown.
- C – Delaying follow-up of a positive result defeats the purpose of screening and may delay treatment.
- D – Assuming a benign cause without examination is false reassurance and unsafe.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
5Question
A nurse is speaking at a community health fair about early detection of cancer. Which reports from attendees does the nurse advise should be evaluated by a health care provider?
Select all that apply.
- A mole that has become darker and developed an uneven border
- Aching thigh muscles on the day after starting a new exercise class
- Hoarseness that has not cleared after several weeks
- Heartburn that occurs now and then after a large, spicy meal
- A change in bowel habits for the past month with blood seen in the stool
- A mouth ulcer that appeared after biting the cheek and healed within a week
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, C and E.
- A – A mole that has become darker and developed an uneven border
- C – Hoarseness that has not cleared after several weeks
- E – A change in bowel habits for the past month with blood seen in the stool
Topic: cancer warning signs
The warning signs of cancer include an obvious change in a mole, persistent hoarseness or cough, and a lasting change in bowel or bladder habits or unusual bleeding. What marks a warning sign is persistence, progression or lack of an obvious cause.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Muscle soreness after unaccustomed exercise has a clear cause and resolves within days.
- D – Occasional heartburn tied to a heavy meal is not a warning sign; persistent indigestion or difficulty swallowing would be.
- F – A sore that heals promptly is reassuring; the warning sign is a sore that does not heal.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
6Question
A nurse is assessing a 4-year-old boy at a well-child visit. Which observation should the nurse report for further evaluation?
- He gets up from the floor by placing his hands on his knees and thighs and pushing himself upright
- He cannot yet skip on alternating feet
- He cannot tie his shoelaces
- He still needs a pull-up diaper on some nights
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. He gets up from the floor by placing his hands on his knees and thighs and pushing himself upright
Topic: Duchenne muscular dystrophy - Gowers sign
Rising from the floor by 'walking' the hands up the legs (Gowers sign) shows weakness of the hip and thigh muscles and is an early sign of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which appears in boys at about three to five years, often with a waddling gait and enlarged calves. The other observations are within the expected range for a 4-year-old.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Skipping on alternating feet is usually achieved at about five years; a 4-year-old typically hops on one foot.
- C – Tying shoelaces needs fine motor skill usually reached at about five to six years.
- D – Night-time dryness is often achieved after daytime control; occasional wetting at four is not abnormal.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
7Question
A school nurse screens a 9-year-old who squints at the classroom board, sits in the front row, and reads a book held close without any difficulty. Which refractive problem is most likely?
- Hyperopia
- Presbyopia
- Myopia
- Strabismus
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Myopia
Topic: refractive errors in children
Myopia, or nearsightedness, focuses light in front of the retina, so near objects are clear and distant ones are blurred. A child who squints at far targets but reads easily at close range fits this pattern and should be referred for an eye examination.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Hyperopia makes near work harder while distance vision is usually better.
- B – Presbyopia is the age-related loss of near focusing that appears after about age 40.
- D – Strabismus is misalignment of the eyes and does not explain blurred distance vision.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
8Question
A 10-year-old's body mass index (BMI) for age was at the 96th percentile last year and is at the 91st percentile today. Which interpretation is correct?
- The child has moved from the obesity category to the overweight category, which is an improvement
- The child has moved from the overweight category to a healthy weight category, which is a full recovery
- Weight status has worsened because the percentile remains above the 85th
- Nothing has changed because both values are above the 50th percentile
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. The child has moved from the obesity category to the overweight category, which is an improvement
Topic: pediatric BMI percentile
Using the CDC categories for children, the 95th percentile or above is obesity and the 85th to below the 95th is overweight. Moving from the 96th to the 91st percentile crosses from obesity into overweight, which is progress though the child is still above a healthy range.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Both values are above 85, so the child has not reached a healthy range.
- C – A falling percentile is not a worsening.
- D – The category cut points are 85th and 95th, not 50th, so a change did occur.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
9Question
Which statement from a client who calls the eye clinic most requires evaluation on the same day?
- My eyes feel dry and a little gritty after I work at the computer for several hours.
- My eyes itch and water every spring when the pollen count is high, and drops help.
- Small print has become hard to read in the past year, and I hold the menu at arm's length.
- I saw flashes of light and many new floaters, and now a shadow is spreading across my left eye.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. I saw flashes of light and many new floaters, and now a shadow is spreading across my left eye.
Topic: retinal detachment warning signs
Flashes, a shower of new floaters, and a spreading shadow or curtain in the visual field suggest retinal detachment. This is a sight-threatening emergency, and delay may cause permanent vision loss.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Dry, gritty eyes after screen use are common and can be managed routinely.
- B – Seasonal itching that responds to drops is an allergic pattern.
- C – Gradual difficulty with near print is age-related presbyopia.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
10Question
A client weighs 82 kg and is 175 cm tall. What is the client's body mass index (BMI) rounded to one decimal place?
- 46.9
- 26.8
- 23.4
- 15.3
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. 26.8
Topic: BMI calculation
BMI equals weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared. Height is 1.75 m, so 1.75 x 1.75 = 3.0625, and 82 divided by 3.0625 is 26.8.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This results from dividing by height without squaring it.
- C – This results from dividing by twice the height instead of squaring.
- D – This results from dividing by the height cubed.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
11Question
At a community health fair, a nurse measures the blood pressure of an adult with no known health problems and obtains 158/96 mm Hg after proper rest and technique. What should the nurse tell the client?
- Hypertension is confirmed by this reading, and medication must start today
- The reading is acceptable because most people are anxious at a health fair
- The reading is high enough to need follow-up with a provider for repeated measurements
- The reading means a stroke is about to occur, so emergency services should be called
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. The reading is high enough to need follow-up with a provider for repeated measurements
Topic: screening blood pressure follow-up
A single elevated screening value does not diagnose hypertension, but a value this high needs confirmation on separate occasions or with home or ambulatory monitoring. The client should be referred for timely follow-up, not told it is normal or an emergency.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A diagnosis needs confirmation on more than one measurement.
- B – Dismissing a clearly high reading could delay needed care.
- D – Without symptoms or a very high reading, emergency care is not indicated.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
12Question
A client who lifts weights four times a week has a BMI of 29 and asks, "Does this mean I am overweight and unhealthy?" Which response is best?
- BMI does not separate muscle from fat, so we will also consider waist size and other measures
- Yes, any BMI above 25 means too much body fat, and you should diet
- No, BMI only applies to people who do not exercise, so you can ignore it and watch the scale instead
- Your BMI is normal for any adult who exercises regularly
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. BMI does not separate muscle from fat, so we will also consider waist size and other measures
Topic: BMI limitations
BMI is a screening measure that uses only height and weight, so it cannot tell muscle from fat. A muscular person can have a high BMI with low body fat, and the nurse looks at waist circumference, health history, and other data before drawing a conclusion.
Why the others are wrong
- B – This overstates BMI by treating it as proof of excess fat.
- C – BMI applies to everyone as a screen, though it must be interpreted in context.
- D – A BMI of 29 is not in the normal range; the statement is inaccurate.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
13Question
An 8-year-old at a well visit has a BMI-for-age at the 3rd percentile. Which interpretation and next step are most appropriate?
- The child is at a healthy weight, so only routine follow-up is needed
- The child is overweight, so a calorie-restricted diet should begin
- The child is underweight, so the nurse should obtain a feeding and health history and notify the provider
- The child has obesity, so the nurse should refer for bariatric evaluation
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. The child is underweight, so the nurse should obtain a feeding and health history and notify the provider
Topic: pediatric underweight
Under the CDC classification, a BMI-for-age below the 5th percentile is underweight. The nurse looks for causes such as inadequate intake, illness, or other concerns and reports the finding to the provider.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The 3rd percentile falls below the healthy range.
- B – Calorie restriction would worsen the problem.
- D – Obesity is a percentile of 95 or above.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
14Question
An 8-week-old infant has a rectal temperature of 38.3 C (100.9 F). Which action should the nurse take?
- Give a tepid sponge bath and recheck in one hour
- Notify the provider immediately and expect prompt evaluation
- Document the finding as normal and recheck at the next routine time
- Remove extra blankets and recheck in four hours
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Notify the provider immediately and expect prompt evaluation
Topic: fever in a young infant
A fever of 38.0 C (100.4 F) or higher in an infant younger than about 3 months is treated as an emergency because the immune system is immature and serious infection can present with few other signs. The provider must be notified promptly.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Cooling measures at home delay evaluation of a possible serious infection.
- C – 38.3 C is a fever in a young infant, not a normal value.
- D – Waiting four hours delays care for a possible serious infection.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
15Question
Which are correct practices when taking anthropometric measurements?
Select all that apply.
- Measure recumbent length rather than standing height for a child under age 2
- Weigh an adult on the same scale at the same time of day each visit
- Plot a 6-month-old's measurements on the CDC chart for ages 2 to 20
- Measure waist circumference over thick clothing to save time
- Plot measurements for a child under 2 on World Health Organization growth charts
- Weigh an adult immediately after a large meal
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and E.
- A – Measure recumbent length rather than standing height for a child under age 2
- B – Weigh an adult on the same scale at the same time of day each visit
- E – Plot measurements for a child under 2 on World Health Organization growth charts
Topic: anthropometric technique
Children under 2 are measured lying down and plotted on WHO growth charts. Adults are weighed on the same scale at a similar time of day so that changes are meaningful, and waist circumference is measured over bare skin or a thin layer.
Why the others are wrong
- C – The 2 to 20 chart is not used for infants; the WHO charts are.
- D – Thick clothing adds error to a waist measurement.
- F – A recent large meal adds weight and makes comparisons unreliable.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
16Question
At a community screening day, 2,000 adults are tested and 240 are found to have type 2 diabetes. Which measure does the nurse calculate when reporting 240 out of 2,000?
- Incidence rate
- Attack rate
- Prevalence
- Case-fatality rate
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Prevalence
Topic: prevalence
Prevalence expresses how many people in a defined group have a condition at one particular time. Counting all existing cases found on one screening day gives that figure.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Incidence counts only new cases arising over a period among those at risk, and the screening counted existing cases.
- B – Attack rate is an incidence-type measure used for a defined group during an outbreak.
- D – Case-fatality rate is the proportion of people with a disease who die of it.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
17Question
A 52-year-old client has no symptoms but a routine screening shows an elevated fasting glucose and early signs of end-organ changes. In the natural history of disease, which stage is the client in?
- Susceptibility stage
- Subclinical stage
- Clinical stage
- Recovery or disability stage
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Subclinical stage
Topic: natural history of disease
In the subclinical stage the disease process has begun and may be detectable by screening, but the person has no symptoms yet. This is the stage targeted by secondary prevention.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The susceptibility stage is before the disease process begins, when only risk factors are present.
- C – The clinical stage begins when symptoms and signs appear; this client has none.
- D – Recovery or disability follows the clinical stage, so it is not applicable.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
18Question
A 36-year-old client with overweight and a mother who has type 2 diabetes asks the nurse what to do. Which advice is best?
- Wait until symptoms such as thirst and frequent urination appear, then ask for testing.
- Aim for weight loss and regular physical activity, and have blood glucose or hemoglobin A1c screened periodically.
- Stop eating all carbohydrates to prevent the disease.
- Because it is inherited, begin taking a diabetes medication now.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Aim for weight loss and regular physical activity, and have blood glucose or hemoglobin A1c screened periodically.
Topic: family history of diabetes and screening
A first-degree relative with type 2 diabetes raises risk, and overweight adds to it. Lifestyle change lowers risk and periodic screening detects early disease.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Waiting for symptoms delays detection; prediabetes and early diabetes are often silent.
- C – Eliminating all carbohydrates is unnecessary and unsafe; balanced intake is recommended.
- D – Medication is not started because of family history alone, and lifestyle change is the first step.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
19Question
At an employer wellness event, a 49-year-old's urine test shows a protein level above normal that is confirmed on repeat testing, indicating early kidney damage. The client reports no swelling, fatigue or other symptoms. Which stage of disease does this represent?
- Susceptible, before any disease process has begun
- Subclinical
- Clinical, once the client notices symptoms
- Recovery
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Subclinical
Topic: subclinical stage of disease
In the subclinical stage the disease process is under way and can be detected by testing, but the person has no symptoms. Screening that finds such disease is secondary prevention.
Why the others are wrong
- A – In the susceptible stage there is no disease process yet; here kidney damage has been confirmed.
- C – The clinical stage requires symptoms or signs the client can notice; the client has none.
- D – Recovery follows a clinical illness and has not begun.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
20Question
A clinic chooses a rapid screening test for a serious but treatable infection. The test is highly sensitive but only moderately specific. What does the nurse expect?
- Few uninfected clients will test positive, but many infected clients may be missed by the screening test
- A positive result will confirm the diagnosis, so no further testing is needed for those clients
- Few infected clients are missed, but some uninfected clients test positive and need confirmation
- The test will correctly identify every infected and every uninfected client who is screened
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Few infected clients are missed, but some uninfected clients test positive and need confirmation
Topic: sensitivity and specificity of screening tests
Sensitivity is the ability to detect people who have the disease, so a highly sensitive test misses few cases. Lower specificity means some people without the disease also test positive, so positives need confirmation.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This describes high specificity with low sensitivity, the opposite of this test.
- B – Moderate specificity means false positives occur, so confirmation is needed.
- D – No screening test is perfect, and this one has false positives.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
21Question
A nurse at a prenatal clinic is planning services for clients. Which activity is an example of secondary prevention?
- Advising clients who plan a pregnancy to take folic acid before they conceive
- Offering glucose screening at 24 to 28 weeks to detect gestational diabetes early
- Offering a childbirth preparation class to clients in the third trimester
- Hosting a weekly prenatal exercise class at the community center for all clients
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Offering glucose screening at 24 to 28 weeks to detect gestational diabetes early
Topic: prenatal screening as secondary prevention
Secondary prevention detects disease early through screening so treatment can start before complications occur. Routine glucose screening in the late second trimester finds gestational diabetes that has no symptoms.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Preventing a defect before it can occur is primary prevention.
- C – Education to prepare for birth is health promotion and primary prevention.
- D – Promoting healthy activity is primary prevention.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
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