Nursing Exam Prep

NCLEX-RN: Pharmacology practice questions questions 26-45

45 questions, page 2 of 2. Try each one first, then open the answer.

Practise these interactively

26Question

In order to assess the therapeutic effect of insulin administration, providers may examine the HgbA1C and desire to maintain a target of:

  1. <9%
  2. <10%
  3. <7%
  4. <8%
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. <7%

Topic: Insulin Therapy Targets

The ADA and AACE recommend an HbA1c below 7% for most non‑pregnant adults on insulin to reduce microvascular complications while balancing hypoglycemia risk and improve long‑term outcomes.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Target <9% exceeds recommended range for optimal glycemic control.
  • B – Target <10% is far above evidence‑based recommendations.
  • D – Target <8% is for patients with complex health issues, not standard goal.

Remember: Aim for HbA1c under 7% to protect eyes, kidneys, nerves.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

27Question

The two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system are known as:

  1. Sensory and Motor
  2. Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
  3. Sympathetic division (SNS) and Parasympathetic division (PNS)
  4. Motor and Somatic
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Sympathetic division (SNS) and Parasympathetic division (PNS)

Topic: Autonomic Nervous System Divisions

The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, which control involuntary functions such as heart rate, digestion, and pupil response.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Sensory and Motor describe function, not autonomic divisions.
  • B – CNS and PNS are overall categories, not autonomic subdivisions.
  • D – Motor and Somatic refer to voluntary control, not autonomic branches.

Remember: Sympathetic = fight, Parasympathetic = rest.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

28Question

Candida albicans (yeast) is commonly treated with which class of antimicrobial medication:

  1. Antitubercular
  2. Antiviral
  3. Antifungal
  4. Antiprotozoal
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Antifungal

Topic: Fungal Infections

Candida albicans is a fungal organism; antifungal agents such as azoles or polyenes target its cell membrane, making the antifungal class the appropriate treatment.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Antituberculars are specific for Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  • B – Antivirals target viruses, not fungi.
  • D – Antiprotozoals act on protozoa, not yeast.

Remember: Yeast infection → treat with antifungal drugs.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

29Question

Which of the following is not one of the main processes of pharmacokinetics?

  1. Distribution
  2. Absorption
  3. Management
  4. Metabolism
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Management

Topic: Pharmacokinetic Processes

Pharmacokinetics describes the ADME processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Management is not a physiological step in drug movement through the body, so it is not a main pharmacokinetic process.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Distribution moves drug to tissues.
  • B – Absorption is the first ADME step.
  • D – Metabolism chemically alters the drug.

Remember: PK = ADME, not Management.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

30Question

Cushing's Syndrome may occur as a side effect of which of the following medications?

  1. Prednisone
  2. Levothyroxine
  3. Lantus
  4. Calcitonin
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A. Prednisone

Topic: Cushing Syndrome Pharmacology

Prednisone is a systemic glucocorticoid; prolonged exposure raises cortisol levels, producing the characteristic signs of iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome such as central obesity, moon face, and hypertension.

Why the others are wrong

  • B – Levothyroxine replaces thyroid hormone and does not affect cortisol pathways.
  • C – Lantus is an insulin analog, unrelated to cortisol excess.
  • D – Calcitonin regulates calcium; it has no glucocorticoid activity.

Remember: Glucocorticoids like prednisone mimic excess cortisol → Cushing's.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

31Question

______________are medications which suppresses a cough by depressing the cough center in the medulla oblongata or the cough receptors in the throat, trachea, or lungs, effectively elevating the threshold for coughing

  1. Antihistamines
  2. Expectorants
  3. Antitussives
  4. Anticholinergics
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Antitussives

Topic: Cough Medication Classification

Antitussives act centrally or peripherally to raise the cough threshold, depressing the medullary cough center or irritating receptors, thereby suppressing the cough reflex. These agents are specifically indicated for dry, nonproductive coughs.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Primarily block histamine; only mild antitussive effect.
  • B – They loosen mucus to aid clearance, not inhibit cough.
  • D – They reduce secretions, not suppress cough reflex.

Remember: Antitussives = cough‑suppressing meds.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

32Question

Lithium toxicity occurs when serum blood levels occur at doses near:

  1. 0.3 mEq/L
  2. 0.7 mEq/L
  3. 1.0 mEq/L
  4. 1.5 mEq/L
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D. 1.5 mEq/L

Topic: Lithium Toxicity Levels

Lithium levels above 1.5 mEq/L are associated with neurologic and gastrointestinal toxicity; concentrations in this range commonly produce tremor, ataxia, and seizures, defining the toxic threshold.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – 0.3 mEq/L is subtherapeutic, not associated with toxicity.
  • B – 0.7 mEq/L lies within therapeutic range, toxicity unlikely.
  • C – 1.0 mEq/L is therapeutic; toxicity usually requires higher levels.

Remember: Toxic lithium: think >1.5 mEq/L.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

33Question

These medications work by facilitating the movement of water and fat into the stool

  1. Stool softeners
  2. Osmotic agents
  3. Fiber supplements
  4. Lubricants
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A. Stool softeners

Topic: Constipation Management

Stool softeners such as docusate are surfactants that lower surface tension of the stool, allowing water and endogenous fats to be incorporated, which softens the stool and eases passage.

Why the others are wrong

  • B – Draw water into lumen via osmosis; they don’t facilitate fat incorporation.
  • C – Add bulk but do not directly increase water/fat content of stool.
  • D – Coat stool to reduce friction; they do not add water or fat.

Remember: Stool softeners = surfactants that let water & fat join stool.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

34Question

Pseudoephedrine is an example of an:

  1. Beta 1 receptor agonist
  2. Alpha 1 receptor agonist
  3. Alpha 2 receptor agonist
  4. Beta 2 receptor agonist
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B. Alpha 1 receptor agonist

Pseudoephedrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, predominantly α1, leading to nasal mucosal vasoconstriction and decongestion; its β activity is minimal, so it is classified as an α1 receptor agonist.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Beta‑1 activation is not its main mechanism of action.
  • C – Pseudoephedrine does not primarily stimulate α2 receptors.
  • D – Beta‑2 effects are negligible; it is not a β2 agonist.

Remember: Pseudoephedrine = α1 for nasal decongestion.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

35Question

Which of the following classes of antimicrobials does not contain a beta-lactam ring?

  1. Penicillins
  2. Carbapenums
  3. Sulfonamides
  4. Monobactams
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Sulfonamides

Topic: Antimicrobial Classes

Sulfonamides inhibit folic acid synthesis and lack the beta‑lactam ring that defines penicillins, monobactams, and carbapenems, which all contain that four‑membered structure.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Penicillins possess a beta‑lactam core.
  • B – Carbapenems contain a beta‑lactam ring.
  • D – Monobactams are a beta‑lactam class.

Remember: Sulfa drugs = no beta‑lactam ring.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

36Question

Stimulation of the alpha 1 receptor causes which of the following responses:

  1. Vasoconstriction
  2. Increased mucus production
  3. Vasodilation
  4. Bronchodilation
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: A. Vasoconstriction

Topic: Alpha‑1 Receptor Effects

Alpha‑1 receptors are located on arteriolar smooth muscle; their activation triggers a phosphatidylinositol cascade causing increased intracellular Ca²⁺ and smooth‑muscle contraction, which raises systemic vascular resistance and elevates blood pressure.

Why the others are wrong

  • B – Alpha‑1 stimulation does not affect mucus glands; it influences vascular tone.
  • C – Alpha‑1 activation contracts vessels; it does not cause dilation.
  • D – Alpha‑1 receptors are not primary mediators of airway smooth‑muscle relaxation.

Remember: Alpha‑1 = arterioles tighten up.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

37Question

Bisacodyl suppositories generally produce a bowel movement within ________to ________.

  1. 2 t0 3 days
  2. 1 to 2 days
  3. 15 minutes to 1 hour
  4. 12 to 24 hours
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. 15 minutes to 1 hour

Topic: Bisacodyl Suppository Onset

Bisacodyl suppositories act locally on the rectal mucosa, stimulating peristalsis and increasing water secretion, which typically results in a bowel movement within 15 minutes to 1 hour after insertion.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – 2‑3 days is far beyond the rapid rectal onset of this formulation.
  • B – Bisacodyl works faster than days; onset is minutes to an hour.
  • D – 12‑24 hours is typical for oral bisacodyl, not rectal suppositories.

Remember: Suppository bisacodyl = minutes, not days.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

38Question

Tamulosin is an example of a _________________________antagonist and is primarly used to relax smooth muscle in the bladder.

  1. Beta 2
  2. Beta 1
  3. Alpha 1
  4. Alpha 2
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Alpha 1

Topic: Alpha‑1 Antagonists

Tamsulosin selectively blocks α1‑adrenergic receptors in the prostate and bladder neck, reducing smooth‑muscle tone and facilitating urine flow; therefore it is commonly used as an α1 antagonist.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – β2 receptors cause bronchodilation, not targeted in urinary therapy.
  • B – β1 receptors affect cardiac contractility, irrelevant to bladder relaxation.
  • D – α2 receptors primarily modulate neurotransmitter release, not bladder smooth muscle.

Remember: Tamsulosin = α1 blocker for prostate smooth muscle.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

39Question

Which class of medications poses a significant risk for ototoxicity and hearing loss, especially when administered with a loop diuretic?

  1. Macrolides
  2. Tetracyclines
  3. Aminoglycosides
  4. Fluoroquinolones
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Aminoglycosides

Topic: Ototoxic Medications

Aminoglycosides are well known to cause dose‑dependent ototoxicity, damaging hair cells in the cochlea; the risk is markedly increased when combined with loop diuretics such as furosemide, which also affect the inner ear.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Macrolides have minimal ototoxic potential; their notable adverse effects involve GI upset and QT prolongation.
  • B – Tetracyclines are not associated with ototoxicity; they mainly cause photosensitivity and GI upset.
  • D – Fluoroquinolones are linked to tendon rupture and QT prolongation, not to clinically significant ototoxicity.

Remember: Aminoglycosides + loop diuretic = ear damage risk.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

40Question

Which of the following medications is used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?

  1. Phenobarbital
  2. Amitripyline hydrochloride
  3. Methylphenidate
  4. Lorazepam
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Methylphenidate

Topic: ADHD Pharmacotherapy

Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant that increases dopamine and norepinephrine levels in the brain, helping to improve attention span, focus, and impulse control in patients diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Phenobarbital is a barbiturate used primarily as an anticonvulsant or sedative, not for ADHD.
  • B – Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis.
  • D – Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures, not ADHD.

Remember: Methylphenidate stimulates focus to keep ADHD on track.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

41Question

Which class of medications are commonly used for the prevention of diarrhea?

  1. Anticholinergics
  2. Opioid-like medications
  3. Probiotics
  4. Adsorbents
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: C. Probiotics

Topic: Diarrhea Prevention

Probiotics restore normal gut flora, competing with pathogenic bacteria and enhancing mucosal immunity, which helps prevent diarrhea, especially after antibiotics or travel, and support intestinal barrier function.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Anticholinergics slow gut motility but are not indicated for preventing diarrhea.
  • B – Opioid-like agents such as loperamide treat existing diarrhea, not its prevention.
  • D – Adsorbents bind toxins after diarrhea starts; they do not prevent it.

Remember: Probiotics = gut’s preventive guard.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

42Question

This class of antimicrobials is most commonly used to treat parasitic infections like tapeworm:

  1. Antiprotozoals
  2. Antivirals
  3. Antimalarials
  4. Antihelmintics
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D. Antihelmintics

Topic: Parasitic Infection Treatment

Antihelmintics are agents specifically designed to eradicate helminthic parasites such as tapeworms, making them the drug class of choice for these infections. They act by disrupting the parasite's metabolism or neuromuscular function, leading to death and expulsion.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Antiprotozoals target protozoa, not helminths like tapeworms.
  • B – Antivirals are used for viral infections, not parasitic worms.
  • C – Antimalarials treat Plasmodium species, not tapeworms.

Remember: Antihelmintics = anti‑worm meds for tapeworms.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

43Question

Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disease that impacts which type of cells within the pancreas?

  1. Alpha
  2. PP
  3. Delta
  4. Beta
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D. Beta

Topic: Pancreatic Islet Cells

In Type 1 diabetes, the immune system attacks the insulin‑producing β‑cells of the pancreatic islets, leading to absolute insulin deficiency and hyperglycemia, resulting in the need for lifelong exogenous insulin therapy.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Alpha cells secrete glucagon, not targeted by the autoimmune process.
  • B – PP cells make pancreatic polypeptide and are unaffected by the disease.
  • C – Delta cells release somatostatin; they are not destroyed in Type 1 diabetes.

Remember: Beta cells = insulin; loss causes Type 1 diabetes.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

44Question

These types of respiratory medication may cause paradoxical effects, especially in children

  1. Anticholinergics
  2. Antihistamines
  3. Antitussives
  4. Xanthine Derivatives
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: B. Antihistamines

Topic: Antihistamine Side Effects

First‑generation antihistamines cross the blood‑brain barrier and can stimulate the CNS, producing restlessness, irritability, or seizures in children—a paradoxical excitation rather than sedation instead of the expected calming effect.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Anticholinergics cause bronchodilation; they do not produce paradoxical CNS stimulation.
  • C – Antitussives generally depress cough reflex; paradoxical excitation is not typical.
  • D – Xanthine derivatives can cause seizures, but not a paradoxical effect specific to children.

Remember: First‑gen antihistamines = kids get hyper, not sleepy.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

45Question

Gout is typically characterized by all of the following symptoms except:

  1. Swelling
  2. Redness
  3. Heat
  4. Pallor
Show the answer and explanation

Answer: D. Pallor

Topic: Gout Presentation

Gout attacks are acute inflammatory episodes that produce a painful, swollen joint that is erythematous and warm. Pallor is not a feature because increased blood flow causes redness, not paleness.

Why the others are wrong

  • A – Swelling is a hallmark of acute gouty arthritis.
  • B – Redness reflects the inflammatory hyperemia of gout attacks.
  • C – Heat results from increased blood flow to the inflamed joint.

Remember: Gout = hot, red, swollen joint, never pale.

Question adapted from Nursing Pharmacology, by Open Resources for Nursing (Open RN); K. Ernstmeyer and E. Christman, editors (WisTech Open), licensed CC BY 4.0; wording and option order may differ from the book. The explanation is ours, checked against the book's answer.

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