51Question
A client with heart failure asks the nurse how her lisinopril differs from the losartan her husband takes. Which explanation is accurate?
- Lisinopril blocks angiotensin II receptors, while losartan blocks the enzyme that makes angiotensin II
- Lisinopril blocks beta-1 receptors in the heart, while losartan relaxes arteries directly
- Both drugs block the angiotensin II receptor and differ only in dose and dosing schedule
- Lisinopril blocks the enzyme that makes angiotensin II; losartan blocks it at the receptor
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Lisinopril blocks the enzyme that makes angiotensin II; losartan blocks it at the receptor
Topic: ACE inhibitor versus ARB mechanism
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor: by blocking angiotensin-converting enzyme it prevents angiotensin II from being formed out of angiotensin I. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker: ACE keeps working, but angiotensin II cannot activate its receptor. Both reduce vasoconstriction and aldosterone effects.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This reverses the two mechanisms.
- B – Lisinopril is not a beta blocker, and losartan is not a direct vasodilator.
- C – Lisinopril acts on the enzyme, not the receptor.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
52Question
A client with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction feels better since sacubitril/valsartan replaced lisinopril, but a routine BNP result is higher than before. The client is alarmed. Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
- "The rise means the drug is failing, and your prescriber will probably need to stop it."
- "The drug makes your heart release more BNP, which shows your heart is pumping more strongly."
- "Sacubitril blocks the enzyme that clears BNP, so it can rise even as you improve."
- "The valsartan part holds on to sodium, which pushes your BNP level up and means more fluid."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. "Sacubitril blocks the enzyme that clears BNP, so it can rise even as you improve."
Topic: sacubitril neprilysin inhibition and BNP
Sacubitril inhibits neprilysin, the enzyme that degrades BNP, so BNP levels rise as a drug effect and are less useful for tracking the client. NT-proBNP is not a neprilysin substrate and is preferred for monitoring.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The rise is an expected drug effect, and the client is improving clinically.
- B – The drug does not make the heart release more BNP; it slows BNP breakdown.
- D – Valsartan blocks angiotensin II and does not cause sodium retention.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
53Question
A client with bipolar I disorder has been admitted with acute mania and is started on valproic acid. Which finding would indicate that the drug is having the desired effect?
- Lower fasting blood glucose values on the morning laboratory panel each day
- A slower resting heart rate when measured at the same time each morning
- Calmer behavior, less pressured speech, and a normal need for sleep
- A larger appetite with steady weight gain over the first several weeks
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Calmer behavior, less pressured speech, and a normal need for sleep
Topic: valproate use as mood stabilizer
Valproate is used as an anticonvulsant and as a mood stabilizer. In acute mania, the desired effect is a reduction of manic symptoms, such as pressured speech, agitation, and a decreased need for sleep.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Valproate is not given to lower glucose.
- B – Heart rate is not the therapeutic target of valproate.
- D – Increased appetite is not a marker of mood stabilization.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
54Question
A client with thick chest congestion has been taking guaifenesin and says, "I still can't cough anything up." What does the nurse teach to help the expectorant work best?
- Limit fluids so the cough does not become wetter and more tiring at night
- Take a cough suppressant with each dose to calm the coughing
- Drink a full glass of water with each dose and keep fluids up
- Lie flat for an hour after each dose so the medicine settles
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Drink a full glass of water with each dose and keep fluids up
Topic: guaifenesin expectorant hydration
Guaifenesin thins and loosens secretions so they can be coughed up, and adequate hydration helps it work. A full glass of water with each dose and good overall fluid intake is the standard advice.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Restricting fluids thickens mucus and makes it harder to clear.
- B – Suppressing the cough keeps the loosened secretions in the airway.
- D – Lying flat can pool secretions rather than clear them.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
55Question
A client arrives in the emergency department three hours after swallowing about 40 acetaminophen tablets. Which medication does the nurse anticipate for this overdose?
- Naloxone
- Acetylcysteine
- Flumazenil
- Protamine sulfate
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Acetylcysteine
Topic: acetylcysteine as acetaminophen antidote
Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It replenishes glutathione and protects the liver from the toxic metabolite, and it works best when given early. Naloxone reverses opioids, flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and protamine reverses heparin.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Naloxone reverses opioid effects, not acetaminophen.
- C – Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines.
- D – Protamine sulfate reverses heparin.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
56Question
A transgender woman asks why spironolactone is prescribed along with her estradiol patch. Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
- "It replaces the estrogen, so the patch can safely be stopped after a few months."
- "It blocks androgen effects, so estrogen's changes can occur more effectively."
- "It raises prolactin levels, which makes breast tissue grow directly and quickly."
- "It prevents the blood clots that estradiol can cause in some people."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. "It blocks androgen effects, so estrogen's changes can occur more effectively."
Topic: antiandrogen role in feminizing therapy
In feminizing hormone therapy, spironolactone acts as an antiandrogen. It blocks androgen receptors and reduces testosterone effects, which allows estrogen to produce its effects. It is not an estrogen and does not prevent clots.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Spironolactone is not an estrogen and cannot replace it.
- C – It does not directly stimulate breast growth through prolactin.
- D – Spironolactone has no anticoagulant effect, and clot risk is monitored separately.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
57Question
A client with heart failure is admitted with fluid volume excess and receives intravenous furosemide. Which nursing action is most useful for evaluating fluid status over the next several days?
- Offer salty broth between meals to improve the client's appetite
- Encourage large amounts of oral fluid to help the kidneys work
- Check the oral temperature every 4 hours
- Weigh the client daily, same time and scale, after voiding
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Weigh the client daily, same time and scale, after voiding
Topic: daily weight in fluid overload
Daily weight under standard conditions is the most sensitive bedside measure of fluid gain or loss, because 1 kg of weight is about 1 liter of fluid. It is trended along with intake and output, edema, and lung sounds.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Salt promotes fluid retention.
- B – Large fluid loads worsen overload.
- C – Temperature does not reflect fluid volume.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
58Question
A client has had vomiting and diarrhea for three days. Which set of findings best supports a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit?
- Heart rate 118, blood pressure 90/54, dry mucous membranes, and scant dark urine
- Heart rate 58, blood pressure 168/96, bounding pulse, and crackles in the lung bases
- Heart rate 84, 2+ pitting edema, and jugular vein distention
- Heart rate 76, weight up 3 kg, and clear urine in large amounts
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Heart rate 118, blood pressure 90/54, dry mucous membranes, and scant dark urine
Topic: signs of fluid volume deficit
Low circulating volume produces tachycardia, low blood pressure, dry mucous membranes, and concentrated, scant urine. The other sets describe volume overload.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Bounding pulse, hypertension, and crackles suggest volume overload.
- C – Edema and jugular vein distention indicate overload.
- D – Weight gain and large urine output do not fit a deficit.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
59Question
A client with resistant hypertension is being evaluated for primary hyperaldosteronism. Which set of findings should the nurse expect?
- Headache, muscle weakness, polyuria and a serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
- Dizziness on standing, darkening of the skin, weight loss and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L
- Weight gain over the trunk, purple abdominal striae, easy bruising and a serum glucose of 160 mg/dL
- Heat intolerance, tremor, a rapid pulse and a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone level
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Headache, muscle weakness, polyuria and a serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
Topic: primary hyperaldosteronism findings
Excess aldosterone makes the kidneys retain sodium and water and excrete potassium, so blood pressure rises and the serum potassium falls. Hypokalemia produces weakness, cramping and polyuria.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Orthostatic dizziness, pigmentation and high potassium describe adrenal insufficiency, where aldosterone is deficient.
- C – Truncal weight gain, striae and bruising describe cortisol excess (Cushing syndrome), not an aldosterone problem.
- D – Heat intolerance, tremor and a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone point to hyperthyroidism.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
60Question
After a motor vehicle collision with blood loss, a client has a heart rate of 110 beats/minute and an estimated stroke volume of 35 mL per beat. What is the client's approximate cardiac output, and how should the nurse interpret it?
- 145 L/min, which is far above the normal range
- 3.85 L/min, which is below the usual resting range
- 38.5 L/min, which indicates a hyperdynamic state
- 3.85 L/min, which is within the usual resting range
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. 3.85 L/min, which is below the usual resting range
Topic: cardiac output calculation
Cardiac output equals heart rate times stroke volume: 110 x 35 = 3,850 mL, or about 3.85 L/min. A typical adult resting output is about 4 to 8 L/min, so this value is low and the tachycardia is compensating for a small stroke volume.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Adding the two numbers gives 145 but ignores the formula, and no human output approaches that.
- C – A decimal error gives 38.5 L/min, which is far beyond any physiologic output.
- D – The arithmetic is right but the interpretation is wrong: 3.85 L/min is below the usual resting range.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
61Question
A client with a duodenal ulcer tests positive for Helicobacter pylori. Which treatment does the nurse anticipate?
- An antacid after meals and at bedtime as the only therapy
- A histamine-2 receptor blocker alone at bedtime for several months
- Sucralfate alone before each meal
- A proton pump inhibitor combined with antibiotics
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. A proton pump inhibitor combined with antibiotics
Topic: H. pylori ulcer therapy
Eradicating H. pylori heals the ulcer and prevents recurrence. Regimens combine acid suppression, usually a proton pump inhibitor, with antibiotics (often with bismuth), because acid suppression alone does not clear the organism.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Antacids neutralize acid for a short time but do not eradicate the bacteria.
- B – A histamine-2 blocker lowers acid but does not kill H. pylori, so the ulcer is likely to return.
- C – Sucralfate coats the ulcer base but has no action against the organism.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
62Question
A client's blood pressure is 144/78 mm Hg on repeated readings at separate visits. Using the American Heart Association and American College of Cardiology categories, which classification fits this reading?
- Normal blood pressure
- Elevated blood pressure
- Stage 2 hypertension
- Stage 1 hypertension
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Stage 2 hypertension
Topic: hypertension classification
The category is set by the higher of the two numbers. A systolic of 140 mm Hg or more is stage 2 hypertension, even when the diastolic value is under 80 mm Hg.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A reading of 120/80 or higher is not normal; the systolic here is far above normal.
- B – Elevated means a systolic of 120 to 129 with a diastolic under 80, and 144 is well above that.
- D – Stage 1 covers a systolic of 130 to 139 or a diastolic of 80 to 89; this systolic is higher.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
63Question
A client has an average blood pressure of 126/76 mm Hg across several visits and no other cardiovascular disease. Which response matches the guideline category?
- Elevated blood pressure; teach lifestyle changes and recheck
- Stage 1 hypertension; begin a thiazide diuretic at today's visit
- Stage 2 hypertension; start two antihypertensive drugs
- Hypertensive urgency; send the client for same-day treatment
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Elevated blood pressure; teach lifestyle changes and recheck
Topic: elevated blood pressure management
A systolic of 120 to 129 mm Hg with a diastolic under 80 mm Hg is elevated blood pressure. Management is nonpharmacologic: weight control, sodium reduction, activity, limiting alcohol and the DASH eating pattern, with reassessment.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Stage 1 starts at 130 systolic or 80 diastolic, so this client does not meet it.
- C – Stage 2 requires 140 or more systolic or 90 or more diastolic.
- D – Hypertensive urgency refers to severely high readings, usually above 180/120 mm Hg.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
64Question
A client with hypertension is learning the DASH eating pattern. Which statement indicates that more teaching is needed?
- I will choose fresh fruit when I want a snack.
- I will read food labels to see how much sodium each serving has.
- I will have fish or beans in place of red meat several times a week.
- Canned soup is fine as long as the label says low fat.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Canned soup is fine as long as the label says low fat.
Topic: DASH diet teaching
The DASH pattern stresses fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat dairy and low sodium. Canned soups are often high in sodium, so a low-fat label does not make them suitable.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Fresh fruit is a recommended snack and fits the plan.
- B – Label reading is how clients keep sodium low.
- C – Replacing red meat with fish or beans fits the plan.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
65Question
A 72-year-old client takes glipizide for type 2 diabetes. The latest hemoglobin A1c is 6.1%, and the client reports morning shakiness with home glucose readings of 56 mg/dL on two mornings this week. Which change does the nurse anticipate?
- Increase the glipizide dose to improve control
- Add a rapid-acting insulin at mealtimes
- Continue the current dose with no changes
- Reduce the glipizide dose or stop it
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Reduce the glipizide dose or stop it
Topic: sulfonylurea and hypoglycemia in older adults
Sulfonylureas like glipizide commonly cause hypoglycemia, and older adults are especially vulnerable. When the A1c is already low and hypoglycemia is occurring, treatment is reduced rather than intensified.
Why the others are wrong
- A – More drug would worsen the hypoglycemia.
- B – Adding insulin would increase the risk of hypoglycemia further.
- C – Continuing unchanged ignores recurrent symptomatic hypoglycemia that is already harming the client.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
66Question
A client receives regular insulin subcutaneously at 7:30 a.m. with breakfast. When should the nurse monitor most closely for hypoglycemia?
- Within the first 30 minutes after the injection
- About 8 to 12 hours after the injection
- About 2 to 4 hours after the injection
- About 18 to 24 hours after the injection
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. About 2 to 4 hours after the injection
Topic: regular insulin peak
Regular insulin begins to act in about 30 minutes, peaks in roughly 2 to 4 hours and lasts about 5 to 8 hours. The risk of hypoglycemia is highest at the peak, around mid-morning in this case.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The first 30 minutes is the onset period, when insulin has barely begun to act.
- B – An 8 to 12 hour peak is not characteristic of regular insulin; it fits longer-acting products.
- D – An 18 to 24 hour window fits only long-acting insulin.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
67Question
A nurse is reviewing intracranial pressure readings for a supine adult with a severe head injury. Which reading requires the nurse to notify the provider and begin measures to lower the pressure?
- Steady at 8 mm Hg
- Steady at 12 mm Hg
- Rising to 15 mm Hg during suctioning, then falling back within a minute
- Sustained at 24 mm Hg
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Sustained at 24 mm Hg
Topic: intracranial pressure thresholds
Normal intracranial pressure for a supine adult is about 7 to 15 mm Hg. Treatment is generally started when pressure stays above about 20 to 22 mm Hg, and brief rises with suctioning that quickly settle are expected.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Eight is within the normal range.
- B – Twelve is within the normal range.
- C – A brief rise to the upper limit during suctioning that settles quickly is expected and not sustained.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
68Question
A 52-year-old client with obesity is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The hemoglobin A1c is 7.9%, the kidney function is normal, and there is no known heart or kidney disease. Which drug does the nurse anticipate as initial medication along with lifestyle changes?
- Metformin
- Glyburide at the maximum dose
- Insulin glargine twice daily
- Pioglitazone in addition to a sulfonylurea
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Metformin
Topic: initial therapy for type 2 diabetes
Metformin is the usual first-line drug for type 2 diabetes in a client without contraindications. It lowers hepatic glucose output, improves insulin sensitivity, does not cause weight gain and rarely causes hypoglycemia on its own.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Maximum-dose glyburide is not first-line and carries a high risk of hypoglycemia and weight gain.
- C – Twice-daily insulin is an aggressive start for an A1c of 7.9% without symptoms or catabolism.
- D – Two agents including a thiazolidinedione are not the usual starting regimen and raise fluid and weight risks.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
69Question
A client with newly diagnosed diabetes asks what the hemoglobin A1c result means. Which statement by the client shows understanding?
- It shows exactly what my glucose was this morning when I fasted.
- It must be drawn before breakfast, so I have to skip eating that day.
- It reflects my average glucose over the past two to three months.
- It will rise and fall with every meal I eat during the day.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. It reflects my average glucose over the past two to three months.
Topic: hemoglobin A1c meaning
Glucose attaches to hemoglobin for the life of the red blood cell, so the A1c reflects average glucose over roughly the previous two to three months. It does not change with a single meal and needs no fasting.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The fasting glucose, not the A1c, shows a morning value.
- B – The A1c can be drawn at any time and does not require fasting.
- D – Meal-to-meal changes are seen on a glucose meter, not in the A1c.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
70Question
A nurse reviews screening results for four adults without symptoms. Which result falls in the prediabetes range?
- Random plasma glucose of 118 mg/dL after lunch
- Fasting plasma glucose of 112 mg/dL
- Hemoglobin A1c of 6.8%
- Fasting plasma glucose of 134 mg/dL
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Fasting plasma glucose of 112 mg/dL
Topic: prediabetes criteria
A fasting plasma glucose of 100 to 125 mg/dL, or an A1c of 5.7% to 6.4%, is prediabetes. A fasting value of 126 mg/dL or higher, or an A1c of 6.5% or higher, meets the criteria for diabetes.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A random glucose of 118 after eating is normal.
- C – An A1c of 6.8% is above 6.5%, which meets the criteria for diabetes.
- D – A fasting value of 134 is above 126 and meets the criteria for diabetes.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
71Question
A client with type 1 diabetes reports sweating and tremors. The glucose meter reads 48 mg/dL. The client is alert and swallowing normally. What should the nurse do first?
- Offer a peanut butter sandwich and recheck after the meal
- Administer glucagon intramuscularly
- Give about 15 to 20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck in 15 minutes
- Give the scheduled rapid-acting insulin with a meal
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Give about 15 to 20 g of fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck in 15 minutes
Topic: treating hypoglycemia
An alert client who can swallow is treated with 15 to 20 g of fast-acting oral carbohydrate, such as juice or glucose tablets, and the glucose is rechecked in 15 minutes. Fat slows absorption, and glucagon is for clients who cannot take food safely.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Fat in the sandwich slows the rise in glucose, so a fast-acting source is needed first.
- B – Glucagon is reserved for clients who are unconscious or cannot swallow safely.
- D – Insulin would lower the glucose further and is dangerous during hypoglycemia.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
72Question
A client has taken antiretroviral therapy for 3 months. Which laboratory change best shows the nurse that the regimen is suppressing viral replication?
- A falling or undetectable HIV viral load
- A rising CD4 count by a small amount
- A falling neutrophil count
- A rising basophil count
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. A falling or undetectable HIV viral load
Topic: monitoring antiretroviral therapy
The plasma HIV RNA level (viral load) is the primary measure of whether therapy is suppressing replication, with an undetectable level as the goal. The CD4 count reflects immune recovery and rises more slowly.
Why the others are wrong
- B – A small CD4 rise suggests immune recovery but does not directly show viral suppression.
- C – A falling neutrophil count may reflect drug toxicity and is not a sign of effect.
- D – Basophil counts have no role in monitoring HIV therapy.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
73Question
A client takes a single tablet containing elvitegravir, cobicistat, emtricitabine and tenofovir. The client asks why cobicistat is included, since it does not fight the virus itself. What is the nurse's best answer?
- It blocks the enzyme that copies viral RNA into DNA, as the other drugs do.
- It prevents the virus from attaching to the surface of immune cells.
- It keeps the virus from joining its genetic material to the client's own.
- It slows the liver's breakdown of elvitegravir so blood levels stay high.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. It slows the liver's breakdown of elvitegravir so blood levels stay high.
Topic: pharmacokinetic booster
Cobicistat is a pharmacokinetic booster that inhibits the liver enzyme CYP3A. This keeps elvitegravir levels high enough to work with once-daily dosing. The same inhibition causes many drug interactions.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Emtricitabine and tenofovir block reverse transcriptase; cobicistat does not.
- B – Entry inhibitors prevent attachment; none of the listed drugs does.
- C – Joining of viral and host DNA is the action of elvitegravir, not cobicistat.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
74Question
A client with a deep puncture wound has never been immunized against tetanus. The provider orders tetanus immune globulin. The nurse explains that this provides which type of protection?
- Active immunity that the body builds over time and keeps for years
- Passive immunity from ready-made antibodies that fade within weeks to months
- Active immunity produced by the tetanus toxoid vaccine alone
- Passive immunity passed from a mother to an infant across the placenta
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Passive immunity from ready-made antibodies that fade within weeks to months
Topic: passive immunity from immune globulin
Immune globulin supplies ready-made antibodies, which gives immediate but temporary passive protection. The client also needs the tetanus vaccine at a separate site to build lasting active immunity.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Active immunity requires the client to make antibodies, which immune globulin does not do.
- C – The toxoid vaccine produces active immunity, but immune globulin is a different product.
- D – Placental transfer is natural passive immunity and not what an injection provides.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
75Question
A client has a painless, firm ulcer on the penis, and blood tests confirm primary syphilis. Which drug should the nurse expect to be prescribed?
- Oral acyclovir daily for 10 days
- Oral metronidazole as a single dose
- Ceftriaxone by mouth for 3 days
- Penicillin G benzathine by intramuscular injection
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Penicillin G benzathine by intramuscular injection
Topic: syphilis treatment
Penicillin G benzathine given intramuscularly is the recommended treatment for primary syphilis. It must never be given intravenously. Acyclovir treats herpes, metronidazole treats trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Acyclovir treats herpes simplex, which produces painful lesions.
- B – Metronidazole treats trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis, not syphilis.
- C – Ceftriaxone is not given orally and is not the first-line drug for syphilis.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
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