76Question
A 17-year-old who has never received the human papillomavirus vaccine says, 'I'm already sexually active, so it's too late for me.' Which response is best?
- It is too late once sexual activity has begun, so I will not give it.
- You can still benefit, because it protects against HPV types you may not have had yet.
- The vaccine will treat any HPV infection you already have.
- It protects against chlamydia and gonorrhea as well as HPV.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. You can still benefit, because it protects against HPV types you may not have had yet.
Topic: HPV vaccination counseling
The vaccine prevents infection with the HPV types it covers, and a person who has been sexually active may not have encountered all of them. Catch-up vaccination is recommended through age 26. It does not treat existing infection and does not protect against other sexually transmitted infections.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Prior sexual activity is not a reason to withhold the vaccine; catch-up is recommended.
- C – The vaccine prevents new infection but does not treat existing infection.
- D – It covers HPV types only and does not protect against chlamydia or gonorrhea.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
77Question
A client admitted 36 hours ago after heavy drinking has a CIWA-Ar score of 22, with marked tremor, drenching sweats and agitation. Which action should the nurse take?
- Give a PRN antipsychotic to control the agitation
- Repeat the assessment in 4 hours
- Give the PRN benzodiazepine per protocol and reassess within an hour
- Hold all sedating drugs to avoid masking the symptoms
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Give the PRN benzodiazepine per protocol and reassess within an hour
Topic: CIWA-Ar triggered treatment
A CIWA-Ar score of 15 or more indicates severe withdrawal. Symptom-triggered benzodiazepine therapy is the standard treatment, with reassessment within an hour to judge response and prevent seizures and delirium tremens.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Antipsychotics can lower the seizure threshold and do not treat the withdrawal.
- B – Waiting 4 hours leaves a severe score untreated and risks seizures.
- D – Withholding treatment risks seizures and delirium tremens.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
78Question
A client with Meniere disease asks what can reduce the number of vertigo attacks. Which teaching is correct?
- Add extra salt to meals to keep fluid in the inner ear balanced.
- Drink several cups of coffee a day to improve circulation to the ear.
- Limit salt, caffeine and alcohol.
- Take aspirin every day to prevent attacks.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Limit salt, caffeine and alcohol.
Topic: Meniere disease self-management
Meniere disease involves excess fluid in the inner ear. A low-sodium diet, with limits on caffeine and alcohol, reduces fluid retention and attack frequency. Aspirin in large doses can itself cause tinnitus.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Extra salt increases fluid retention and worsens attacks.
- B – Caffeine can worsen tinnitus and vertigo.
- D – Regular aspirin can cause tinnitus and does not prevent attacks.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
79Question
A 56-year-old whose mother had glaucoma learns at an eye examination that the eye pressure is at the upper limit of normal, the optic nerve looks suspicious, and the visual fields are normal. The eye clinic labels the client a “glaucoma suspect,” and the client asks what happens now. Which response by the nurse is best?
- “You will need regular eye visits to track your eye pressure, optic nerve, and visual fields.”
- “Nothing more is needed unless your central vision becomes blurry or your eye hurts.”
- “You already have glaucoma and will lose vision within a year.”
- “Your pressure is normal, so no further testing is needed.”
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. “You will need regular eye visits to track your eye pressure, optic nerve, and visual fields.”
Topic: glaucoma suspect follow-up
People labeled as suspects have risk factors such as higher eye pressure, an abnormal-looking optic nerve, or a strong family history, without proven field loss. Because glaucoma is silent and damages peripheral vision first, the client is monitored with repeated pressure checks, optic nerve examination, and visual field testing so treatment can start when change appears.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Glaucoma is painless and first takes peripheral vision, so waiting for blurring means damage has already occurred.
- C – A suspect has risk factors, not confirmed disease, and no timeline can be promised.
- D – A normal pressure reading does not exclude glaucoma, and the nerve appearance and family history still require follow-up.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
80Question
A parent calls the clinic about a 6-year-old with red, itchy eyes and thick yellow-green drainage that crusts the lashes overnight. Which additional symptom should the nurse tell the parent needs evaluation the same day?
- Eyelids stuck together on waking until wiped with a warm cloth
- A mild gritty or burning feeling in both eyes
- Eye pain with sensitivity to light or a drop in vision
- Drainage that returns soon after the eyes are wiped
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Eye pain with sensitivity to light or a drop in vision
Topic: conjunctivitis warning signs
Simple conjunctivitis causes redness, grittiness, and discharge but not deep pain, light sensitivity, or loss of vision. Those findings point to a deeper eye problem such as a corneal infection or inflammation inside the eye, which can threaten sight and needs prompt examination.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Overnight crusting is a common feature of bacterial conjunctivitis and fits the current picture.
- B – Mild irritation is common in conjunctivitis and is not a warning sign.
- D – Recurring discharge is expected in conjunctivitis and is managed with cleaning and hand hygiene.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
81Question
A client with cholecystitis is planning meals before discharge. Which lunch selection by the client shows that teaching about the inflamed biliary system was understood?
- A cheeseburger, onion rings, and a chocolate milkshake
- Baked chicken breast, steamed green beans, and rice
- Fish fried in batter, French fries, and creamy coleslaw
- Broccoli-cheese casserole, buttered rolls, and whole milk
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Baked chicken breast, steamed green beans, and rice
Topic: low-fat diet in biliary inflammation
Fat in the small intestine triggers bile release, so a diseased biliary system responds with pain when fat intake is high. A low-fat meal built on lean protein, vegetables, and starch reduces the stimulus and the risk of an attack.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This meal is high in fat, which triggers gallbladder contraction and pain.
- C – Frying and creamy dressings add large amounts of fat that can provoke an attack.
- D – Cheese, butter, and whole milk are all high in fat despite the vegetable.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
82Question
A client who finished radiation to the neck 2 months ago says food now “sticks” while swallowing and the mouth always feels dry. Which instruction should the nurse give?
- Sip water at meals, use a saliva substitute, and eat moist foods
- Rinse often with an alcohol-based mouthwash to prevent infection
- Suck on sugared hard candies throughout the day to stimulate more saliva
- Limit fluids at meals so the stomach does not feel too full too quickly
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Sip water at meals, use a saliva substitute, and eat moist foods
Topic: xerostomia after head and neck radiation
Radiation can damage the salivary glands, so there is less saliva to moisten and lubricate food. Frequent sips of fluid, saliva substitutes, moist soft foods, and careful dental hygiene replace some of that function and make swallowing safer.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Alcohol dries and irritates mucosa that is already short of saliva.
- C – Sugar greatly increases the risk of dental decay when saliva protection is lost; sugar-free products are used.
- D – Fluids are needed to moisten food and ease swallowing; restricting them worsens the problem.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
83Question
A client has sudden weakness of the right side of the face and cannot close the right eyelid. The provider diagnoses a facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) palsy. Which intervention is the nurse's priority?
- Teach the client to chew food on the weak side to strengthen it
- Offer thin liquids through a straw to increase intake
- Position the client flat for meals to reduce drooling
- Lubricate the eye and cover it at night to protect the cornea
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Lubricate the eye and cover it at night to protect the cornea
Topic: facial nerve palsy and eye protection
The facial nerve controls the muscles that close the eye and also supplies saliva production and taste on the front of the tongue. Because the eyelid cannot close and blinking is reduced, the cornea dries and can ulcerate, so eye protection is the priority.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Food will pocket on the weak side and raise the risk of choking; chewing is done on the unaffected side.
- B – Lip weakness makes straw use difficult and can cause spilling or aspiration.
- C – A flat position increases aspiration risk; the client should be upright to eat.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
84Question
A client treated 2 days ago for a scraped shin has a red, warm, tender area surrounding the wound. Which new finding suggests infection spreading beyond a local inflammatory response?
- Slightly less swelling at the wound edge than yesterday
- Tenderness that improves when the leg is elevated
- Fever and a red streak extending up the leg
- Warmth limited to the area within an inch of the wound
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Fever and a red streak extending up the leg
Topic: local inflammation versus spreading infection
Redness, warmth, swelling, and pain around an injury are the expected local signs of inflammation. Fever and a red streak advancing along the limb indicate that bacteria are spreading through the lymphatics or bloodstream, which requires prompt treatment.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Declining swelling indicates that the inflammation is settling.
- B – Relief with elevation is consistent with ordinary inflammatory swelling.
- D – Localized warmth is one of the usual signs of inflammation.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
85Question
A client with asthma arrives short of breath, using accessory muscles, and can say only two words at a time. Loud wheezing was heard 20 minutes ago, but now almost no breath sounds can be heard over either lung. How should the nurse interpret this change?
- The bronchospasm has resolved and the bronchodilator is working
- Airflow is severely limited; respiratory failure may be near
- The client has relaxed and the airways have opened
- Mucus has cleared, so oral medicines can be started
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Airflow is severely limited; respiratory failure may be near
Topic: silent chest in severe asthma
Wheezing needs some airflow to produce sound. When obstruction becomes so severe that little air moves, the wheeze disappears and breath sounds fade, producing a “silent chest.” With ongoing distress, this is an ominous sign that needs immediate intervention.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Resolution would bring easier breathing and clear air movement, not a silent chest with accessory muscle use.
- C – Anxiety relief would not produce missing breath sounds in a client who still cannot speak.
- D – Cleared secretions would increase air movement and breath sounds, not remove them.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
86Question
A client with COPD was hospitalized for an exacerbation triggered by a respiratory infection. At discharge, which action would best lower the risk of another infection-triggered exacerbation?
- Get yearly influenza and recommended pneumococcal vaccines
- Take a daily oral antibiotic through the winter months
- Use the rescue inhaler every 4 hours as a preventive measure
- Stay indoors and avoid all exercise during the cold season
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Get yearly influenza and recommended pneumococcal vaccines
Topic: vaccination to prevent COPD exacerbation
Clients with COPD are prone to respiratory infections, which are common triggers for exacerbations. Immunization against influenza and pneumococcus, together with hand hygiene, reduces the risk of infection-driven flares.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Routine long-term antibiotics are not used for prevention and promote resistance.
- C – Rescue inhalers treat symptoms and do not prevent infection.
- D – Inactivity weakens the client; exercise and pulmonary rehabilitation are encouraged.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
87Question
A client with COPD who has smoked for 40 years says, “My lungs are already ruined, so quitting won't change anything.” Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
- “You're right that the damage is permanent, so whether to quit is simply your choice.”
- “If you keep smoking, you will die of this disease within a few years.”
- “Most people in your situation just need more willpower.”
- “Stopping now can slow further lung damage, and we can plan medicines and support.”
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. “Stopping now can slow further lung damage, and we can plan medicines and support.”
Topic: motivating smoking cessation in COPD
Lung damage from smoking is largely irreversible, but stopping slows the yearly decline in lung function, lowers exacerbations, and improves survival. A therapeutic reply acknowledges the client's feeling, gives the true benefit, and offers concrete help.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This confirms the client's hopelessness and offers no help or benefit of quitting.
- B – A threat is inaccurate, creates fear and resistance, and does not offer support.
- C – This blames the client and ignores that nicotine dependence is treatable with medicine and counseling.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
88Question
A client with central diabetes insipidus begins desmopressin. Which finding best indicates that the drug is working?
- Urine output rises and the urine becomes paler
- Thirst increases and the client drinks more fluids
- Urine output stays above 5 liters a day with very dilute urine
- Urine output falls and urine specific gravity rises
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Urine output falls and urine specific gravity rises
Topic: desmopressin response in diabetes insipidus
Desmopressin replaces antidiuretic hormone, which makes the kidney's collecting ducts reabsorb water so urine becomes more concentrated. Success shows as lower urine volume, higher specific gravity or osmolality, and less thirst.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This is the untreated pattern of dilute, abundant urine.
- B – Constant thirst reflects ongoing water loss rather than control.
- C – Persistently high output of dilute urine means the drug is not effective.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
89Question
A client treated for renal colic from a calcium stone asks how to avoid another one. Which instruction is most appropriate?
- Restrict fluids so less urine passes through the kidneys
- Drink fluids all day and evening to keep the urine pale
- Cut out every dairy food and take a calcium supplement instead
- Limit fluids after dinner so sleep is not disturbed
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Drink fluids all day and evening to keep the urine pale
Topic: preventing recurrent kidney stones
Stones form when minerals are concentrated in urine. Keeping urine dilute with high, evenly spread fluid intake is the most important preventive measure for most stone types, along with diet changes guided by the stone analysis.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Concentrated urine favors stone formation; fluid is increased, not restricted.
- C – Dietary calcium binds oxalate in the gut and is not eliminated; supplements can raise risk.
- D – Urine should stay dilute around the clock, including overnight.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
90Question
A client had the terminal ileum removed because of Crohn disease. Which long-term therapy should the nurse anticipate?
- Vitamin B12 injections, given periodically
- Daily oral vitamin K supplements
- Weekly intravenous infusions of iron dextran
- High-dose oral thiamine with every meal
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Vitamin B12 injections, given periodically
Topic: vitamin B12 after ileal resection
The terminal ileum is the only site where vitamin B12 bound to intrinsic factor is absorbed. After it is removed, B12 cannot be absorbed from food and the client needs lifelong replacement, usually by injection.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Vitamin K is largely made by gut bacteria and absorbed with dietary fat; it is not the nutrient lost by ileal resection.
- C – Iron is absorbed mainly in the duodenum, which remains intact.
- D – Thiamine is absorbed in the upper small intestine and is not lost with the terminal ileum.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
91Question
On the evening after a total thyroidectomy, a client reports tingling around the mouth and in the fingertips, and the nurse sees a hand spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated. Which prescription does the nurse anticipate?
- IV calcium gluconate
- Levothyroxine by mouth
- Cinacalcet by mouth
- Calcitonin by injection
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. IV calcium gluconate
Topic: hypocalcemia after thyroidectomy
The parathyroid glands, which raise calcium, can be injured or removed during thyroid surgery. Low parathyroid hormone lowers calcium and raises phosphate, producing perioral tingling, Trousseau sign, and potentially laryngospasm or seizures. Intravenous calcium gluconate treats symptomatic hypocalcemia.
Why the others are wrong
- B – It replaces thyroid hormone but does not correct a low calcium level.
- C – Cinacalcet lowers parathyroid hormone and calcium, which would worsen the problem.
- D – Calcitonin lowers serum calcium, the opposite of what is needed.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
92Question
A 48-year-old client reports fatigue, cold intolerance, constipation, dry skin, and a 10-pound weight gain over 4 months with no change in diet. Which laboratory test does the nurse expect the provider to order first?
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH) level
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone
- Serum ionized calcium
- Fasting insulin level
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Topic: TSH as the first thyroid test
The symptoms describe hypothyroidism. TSH is the most sensitive first test: in primary thyroid failure the pituitary raises TSH, followed by free T4 to confirm.
Why the others are wrong
- A – PTH evaluates calcium disorders, not these symptoms of low thyroid function.
- C – Calcium is evaluated for parathyroid disease, not as the first test for this picture.
- D – Insulin testing assesses glucose metabolism and does not explain cold intolerance and dry skin.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
93Question
A client has had 3 days of nasal congestion, facial pressure, and thick drainage, with no fever, and asks for an antibiotic. Which response by the nurse is best?
- “Most are viral; rinses and pain relievers help, and antibiotics wait for symptoms past 10 days.”
- “An antibiotic will shorten the illness, so I will ask the provider for one today.”
- “Yellow or green drainage always means a bacterial infection that must be treated with an antibiotic.”
- “Antibiotics are the only thing that can ease the pressure, so you will have to wait.”
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. “Most are viral; rinses and pain relievers help, and antibiotics wait for symptoms past 10 days.”
Topic: viral versus bacterial sinusitis
Most acute sinusitis is caused by viruses and improves with supportive care. Antibiotics are reserved for symptoms that persist beyond about 10 days, are severe, or worsen after initial improvement.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Antibiotics do not help viral infections and add the risk of side effects and resistance.
- C – Drainage color does not distinguish viral from bacterial infection.
- D – Analgesics, saline irrigation, and decongestant measures provide relief while waiting.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
94Question
A client with a 4-week cough, night sweats, and weight loss is suspected of having tuberculosis. Which instruction for collecting sputum specimens is correct?
- Collect saliva after rinsing the mouth with an antiseptic mouthwash
- Collect one specimen in the evening after supper
- Combine three days of sputum into a single container
- Cough deeply on rising and bring up lung sputum, not saliva
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Cough deeply on rising and bring up lung sputum, not saliva
Topic: sputum collection for acid-fast bacilli
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is found by acid-fast smear and mycobacterial culture of sputum. Early-morning samples coughed deeply from the lungs contain the most organisms, and several separate specimens are collected.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Saliva rarely contains the organism, and mouthwash can interfere with the culture.
- B – Morning specimens contain secretions that pooled overnight and give a better yield.
- C – Specimens are collected and labeled separately, usually on different days or at least 8 hours apart.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
95Question
A clinic nurse reviews referrals for prescription weight-management drug therapy, which by labeling requires a BMI of at least 30 kg/m2, or at least 27 kg/m2 with a weight-related condition. Which client meets the criteria?
- A 30-year-old with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 who wants to lose weight for a wedding
- A 52-year-old with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 and hypertension
- A 40-year-old with a BMI of 26 kg/m2 and no medical problems
- A 35-year-old with a BMI of 25 kg/m2 and a family history of obesity
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. A 52-year-old with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 and hypertension
Topic: BMI criteria for weight-management drugs
Prescription weight-management drugs are indicated for adults with obesity (BMI 30 or higher) or overweight (BMI 27 or higher) with at least one weight-related condition such as hypertension, type 2 diabetes, or dyslipidemia. Class III obesity is a BMI of 40 or higher.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A BMI of 24 is in the normal range and does not meet either threshold.
- C – A BMI of 26 is below 27 and there is no weight-related condition.
- D – Family history does not substitute for a BMI threshold or a weight-related condition.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
96Question
A 26-year-old competitive weightlifter has a BMI of 31 kg/m2, a normal waist circumference, and low body fat on skinfold measurement. How should the nurse interpret the BMI?
- The client has class I obesity and should be offered a weight-loss drug right away
- The BMI is invalid and should not be recorded
- The BMI shows a high risk of type 2 diabetes
- BMI can overestimate fat in a muscular person, so other measures are needed
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. BMI can overestimate fat in a muscular person, so other measures are needed
Topic: limitations of BMI
BMI uses only height and weight and cannot tell muscle from fat. In people with large muscle mass it can classify normal-fat individuals as obese, so waist circumference and body composition add important information.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The BMI is classed correctly, but the client does not have excess fat, so drug therapy is not indicated.
- B – BMI is still recorded; it is interpreted in context with other measurements.
- C – Risk depends on fat distribution and metabolic factors, which are normal here.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
97Question
A nurse documents the weight classification of a client whose BMI is 36.5 kg/m2. Which classification is correct?
- Overweight
- Class I obesity
- Class II obesity
- Class III obesity
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Class II obesity
Topic: BMI classification of obesity
Obesity classes are defined by BMI: class I is 30 to 34.9, class II is 35 to 39.9, and class III is 40 or higher. A BMI of 36.5 falls in class II.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Overweight is a BMI of 25 to 29.9.
- B – Class I obesity is a BMI of 30 to 34.9.
- D – Class III obesity is a BMI of 40 or above.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
98Question
A client taking orlistat plans to eat fast food freely, saying, “The pill will block the fat anyway.” What is the nurse's best response?
- “It blocks only some of the fat, so you still need diet changes and exercise.”
- “Orlistat burns calories, so extra exercise is unnecessary.”
- “Fatty foods are fine if you take the capsule an hour before the meal begins.”
- “A high-fat meal will be harmless; you will only notice slightly looser stools.”
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. “It blocks only some of the fat, so you still need diet changes and exercise.”
Topic: realistic expectations with orlistat
Orlistat inhibits pancreatic lipase and prevents absorption of only a portion of dietary fat. It works alongside a lower-calorie, reduced-fat diet; high-fat meals cause oily stools, urgency, and flatus.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Orlistat does not raise metabolism; it only limits fat absorption.
- C – The capsule works during a meal and a high-fat meal increases unpleasant bowel effects.
- D – Large fat loads cause urgent, oily stools and do not give a safe license to overeat.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
99Question
A client with kidney failure has a serum potassium of 7.0 mEq/L, peaked T waves, and a widening QRS complex. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse give first?
- IV calcium gluconate
- Regular insulin intravenously with dextrose
- Furosemide intravenously
- Sodium polystyrene sulfonate by mouth
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. IV calcium gluconate
Topic: emergency treatment of hyperkalemia
In severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes, the first step is membrane stabilization with intravenous calcium, which protects the heart within minutes. Insulin with dextrose and then agents that remove potassium (loop diuretics, binders, dialysis) follow.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Insulin shifts potassium into cells but does not protect the heart muscle from its effects.
- C – It removes potassium slowly and only if the kidneys can still make urine.
- D – It works over hours and is too slow for life-threatening ECG changes.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
100Question
A transgender man who has a uterus and has sex with a partner who produces sperm began testosterone 4 months ago. He has had no menstrual periods since and says, “I can't get pregnant now.” What is the nurse's best response?
- “You're right; testosterone makes pregnancy impossible once your periods have completely stopped.”
- “Testosterone is not reliable birth control and can harm a fetus; let's discuss options.”
- “Pregnancy is possible, but testosterone is safe for a developing baby.”
- “Only your partner needs to use protection, since you have surely stopped ovulating.”
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. “Testosterone is not reliable birth control and can harm a fetus; let's discuss options.”
Topic: testosterone is not contraception
Testosterone may stop menstruation but does not reliably prevent ovulation, so pregnancy can occur. Because testosterone can harm a fetus, clients who could become pregnant need effective contraception and a pregnancy test before starting therapy.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Ovulation can still occur after periods stop, and pregnancy has happened on testosterone.
- C – Testosterone is contraindicated in pregnancy because of risk to the fetus.
- D – Ovulation may not have stopped, and protection applies to both partners.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
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