101Question
A hospitalized client with anorexia nervosa reports feeling faint. Data: heart rate 38/min, blood pressure 82/50 mm Hg, potassium 3.0 mEq/L, weight up 0.2 kg since yesterday. What should the nurse do first?
- Notify the provider immediately and prepare for cardiac monitoring and electrolyte replacement
- Praise the client for the weight gain and encourage finishing meals
- Weigh the client again to confirm accuracy
- Ask the dietitian to revise the meal plan
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Notify the provider immediately and prepare for cardiac monitoring and electrolyte replacement
Topic: anorexia nervosa cardiac risk
Severe bradycardia, hypotension and hypokalemia in anorexia nervosa threaten life-threatening arrhythmia. Urgent physiologic stabilization takes priority over behavioral goals.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Weight gain and meals matter, but do not address unstable vital signs.
- C – Reweighing delays escalation; the weight is not the problem.
- D – A diet revision is useful later but not first with unstable cardiac findings.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
102Question
A client with bulimia nervosa induces vomiting several times daily. Which findings should the nurse expect?
Select all that apply.
- Painless swelling of the cheeks from parotid enlargement
- Erosion of dental enamel
- Hypokalemia
- Fine downy lanugo hair over the trunk
- Metabolic acidosis from loss of gastric acid
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Painless swelling of the cheeks from parotid enlargement
- B – Erosion of dental enamel
- C – Hypokalemia
Topic: bulimia nervosa complications
Repeated vomiting causes parotid swelling, dental enamel erosion, hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis. Lanugo is typical of starvation in anorexia nervosa, and acid loss produces alkalosis, not acidosis.
Why the others are wrong
- D – Lanugo is a starvation sign of anorexia nervosa.
- E – Vomiting loses acid and causes metabolic alkalosis.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
103Question
A hospice nurse is teaching the daughter of a client who is dying. The client sleeps most of the day, takes only sips of fluid and has pauses in breathing with noisy secretions. Which points should the nurse include?
Select all that apply.
- Less hunger and thirst are expected as the body slows down, and forcing food or fluid can cause discomfort
- A feeding tube is needed now so that the client does not starve
- Frequent mouth care and moistening of the lips will keep the client comfortable
- The client should receive IV fluids as soon as the urine output drops
- Pauses in breathing and noisy secretions are common, and positioning and ordered medications can ease them
- Hearing may last until near death, so keep speaking gently and touching the client
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, C, E and F.
- A – Less hunger and thirst are expected as the body slows down, and forcing food or fluid can cause discomfort
- C – Frequent mouth care and moistening of the lips will keep the client comfortable
- E – Pauses in breathing and noisy secretions are common, and positioning and ordered medications can ease them
- F – Hearing may last until near death, so keep speaking gently and touching the client
Topic: teaching families about expected dying changes
As death approaches the body needs less food and fluid, and pushing them can cause nausea, swelling or aspiration. Comfort measures such as mouth care, positioning and medications for secretions, along with continued talking and touch, help both client and family. Family teaching about expected changes reduces fear and guilt.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Tube feeding does not prolong comfort at the end of life and can cause aspiration and distress.
- D – Falling urine output is an expected change as intake falls; IV fluids add fluid overload and discomfort.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
104Question
A client with end-stage heart failure has a valid do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The client now has increasing shortness of breath and a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. Which action is correct?
- Treat the dyspnea and the wound with all other ordered care, and withhold only resuscitation if the heart stops
- Hold oxygen, antibiotics and wound care until the family confirms the goals of care and the DNR order is reviewed again
- Move the client to a comfort-only status and stop monitoring vital signs
- Ask the provider to suspend the DNR order while the new problems are being treated
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Treat the dyspnea and the wound with all other ordered care, and withhold only resuscitation if the heart stops
Topic: scope of a DNR order
A DNR order applies only to cardiopulmonary resuscitation if the heart or breathing stops. All other ordered treatment and comfort measures continue, including oxygen, wound care and symptom relief, unless the client or surrogate chooses otherwise. A change in the plan of care needs a new order, not an assumption.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Care continues under the existing orders; the family does not need to reconfirm every treatment.
- C – A move to comfort-only care needs a new order and a goals-of-care decision, and monitoring still guides symptom relief.
- D – The order does not conflict with treating dyspnea or a wound, so there is no reason to suspend it.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
105Question
A school nurse screens a 12-year-old for scoliosis. Which instruction should the nurse give to inspect the spine?
- 'Stand straight with your arms raised above your head while I look from the side.'
- 'Bend forward at the waist with your arms hanging down while I look at your back from behind.'
- 'Lie on your stomach and lift both legs off the table.'
- 'Sit on the table and turn your head from side to side while I look at your neck.'
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. 'Bend forward at the waist with your arms hanging down while I look at your back from behind.'
Topic: scoliosis screening
In the forward bend test, the child bends at the waist with arms hanging while the examiner views the back from behind. A rib hump or uneven flank or shoulder height indicates a rotated curve, and the child is referred for evaluation.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A side view does not reveal rotation of the rib cage that signals scoliosis.
- C – This tests back extensor strength, not the curve of the spine.
- D – Head turning tests neck movement, not spinal curvature.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
106Question
A nurse is caring for a client six hours after a cast was applied for a tibia fracture. Which findings require prompt action?
Select all that apply.
- Pain rated 9 out of 10 that is not relieved by the prescribed opioid and increases when the toes are moved passively
- Toes that are pale, cool and slow to refill
- Numbness and tingling in the toes
- Slight toe swelling that lessens when the leg is elevated
- Warm, pink toes with brisk capillary refill
- Pain rated 3 out of 10 that is relieved by an oral analgesic
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Pain rated 9 out of 10 that is not relieved by the prescribed opioid and increases when the toes are moved passively
- B – Toes that are pale, cool and slow to refill
- C – Numbness and tingling in the toes
Topic: compartment syndrome warning signs
After casting, escalating pain not relieved by opioids, pain with passive stretch, pallor, coolness, delayed refill and paresthesia suggest compartment syndrome or impaired circulation. Delay can cause permanent nerve and muscle damage, so the provider is notified immediately.
Why the others are wrong
- D – Mild swelling that resolves with elevation is expected.
- E – These are normal perfusion findings.
- F – Controlled, improving pain is expected after a fracture.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
107Question
During a routine clinic visit, a 68-year-old client suddenly develops a drooping left side of the face and slurred speech. The client was talking normally five minutes ago. What is the nurse's priority action?
- Call the emergency response team and record the time symptoms began
- Help the client lie down with a cool cloth and recheck the face and speech after 15 minutes
- Repeat the blood pressure in the opposite arm with a larger cuff to confirm the first reading
- Finish the remaining neurologic screening and then give the findings to the clinic provider
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Call the emergency response team and record the time symptoms began
Topic: stroke recognition and priority
Sudden facial droop with slurred speech are signs of a possible stroke, and treatment depends on how soon the client is evaluated. The nurse activates the emergency response and records when the client was last known to be normal, because that time determines eligibility for clot-dissolving therapy.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Waiting 15 minutes loses treatment time; improvement could also be a warning sign of recurrence.
- C – Re-measuring blood pressure is not the priority and delays activation of emergency care.
- D – Completing the screen delays emergency care when minutes matter.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
108Question
A nurse assesses a client after a head injury. The client opens the eyes only to painful stimulus, speaks words that are inappropriate and not part of a conversation, and withdraws from pain. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score?
- 8
- 10
- 9
- 12
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. 9
Topic: Glasgow Coma Scale scoring
Eye opening to pain scores 2, inappropriate words score 3, and withdrawal from pain scores 4. The total is 2 + 3 + 4 = 9.
Why the others are wrong
- A – 8 would result from scoring withdrawal as flexion (3) instead of withdrawal (4).
- B – 10 would result from scoring the motor response as localizing (5).
- D – 12 would require the eyes opening to voice and a better motor response.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
109Question
A nurse in a pediatric clinic needs a baseline pain rating from a 10-year-old who has typical cognition, can count, and has a sprained wrist. Which tool is most appropriate?
- Numeric rating scale from 0 to 10
- CRIES neonatal scale
- FLACC behavioral tool
- The parent's estimate of how much pain the child is in, given on the child's behalf
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Numeric rating scale from 0 to 10
Topic: pain scale selection by age
School-age children who can count and understand numbers can rate their own pain on a 0 to 10 scale. Self-report is the gold standard when the client is able to give it. Behavioral tools are meant for infants or children who cannot report pain.
Why the others are wrong
- B – CRIES is designed for newborns.
- C – FLACC scores behavior for young or nonverbal children, not a child who can describe pain.
- D – A parent's report is a proxy; the child can give a direct rating.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
110Question
A nurse in a long-term care facility must assess pain in a resident with advanced dementia who no longer speaks. The resident is grimacing and guarding the left hip. Which tool is most appropriate?
- PAINAD behavioral observation scale
- Numeric rating scale where the resident points to a number
- Wong-Baker faces scale with the resident choosing a face
- PQRST questions asked directly of the resident
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. PAINAD behavioral observation scale
Topic: pain in advanced dementia
When a client cannot self-report, pain is assessed by observing behavior. The Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia scale scores breathing, vocalization, facial expression, body language and consolability. Self-report tools need comprehension and communication that this resident lacks.
Why the others are wrong
- B – A numeric scale needs the resident to understand and answer in numbers.
- C – A faces scale still depends on the resident choosing and communicating a face.
- D – PQRST depends on verbal answers the resident cannot give.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
111Question
A client with borderline personality disorder tells a nurse, "You are the only one who really cares. The night nurse is cold and cruel. Promise you will not tell the others what I said." What is the best response?
- "I'm glad you trust me. I won't tell anyone."
- "The night nurse would be upset to hear you say that."
- "Why are you trying to turn us against each other?"
- "I care about how you feel, but I can't keep secrets. The team shares information so everyone gives you consistent care."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. "I care about how you feel, but I can't keep secrets. The team shares information so everyone gives you consistent care."
Topic: borderline splitting
Splitting divides people into all good and all bad. The nurse stays warm yet consistent, refuses secret keeping, and shares information with the team so care is uniform.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Promising secrecy accepts the split and sets the nurse up for later disappointment.
- B – This pits staff against each other and is a threat, not a therapeutic reply.
- C – Accusatory questions provoke defensiveness and a sense of rejection.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
112Question
A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly asks nurses for special favors and says other nurses allowed them. Which nursing actions are appropriate?
Select all that apply.
- Set clear limits with stated consequences and apply them consistently
- Share personal details to build rapport
- Document the client's behavior objectively and factually
- Hold regular team discussions so everyone responds the same way
- Make exceptions when the client argues convincingly
- Expect the client to feel remorse and press for emotional insight
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, C and D.
- A – Set clear limits with stated consequences and apply them consistently
- C – Document the client's behavior objectively and factually
- D – Hold regular team discussions so everyone responds the same way
Topic: antisocial manipulation
Clients with antisocial traits test limits and exploit inconsistency. Clear consequences, factual documentation and team consistency reduce manipulation; personal disclosure and exceptions are exploited.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Personal disclosures can be used to manipulate and blur boundaries.
- E – Exceptions reward manipulation and invite repeats.
- F – Limited remorse is part of the disorder; pressing for it is ineffective.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
113Question
A nurse places a stethoscope on a client's abdomen to listen for bowel sounds and hears nothing at all, although the client is eating normally and the abdomen is soft. What should the nurse do first before deciding that bowel sounds are absent?
- Report to the provider that bowel sounds are absent in all four quadrants
- Switch to the bell and press it firmly against the abdomen
- Wipe the diaphragm with an alcohol pad and warm it in the hand
- Turn the chestpiece so the side in use is open, then listen again
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Turn the chestpiece so the side in use is open, then listen again
Topic: stethoscope chestpiece check
Many stethoscope chestpieces have two sides, and only the side that is open to the tubing carries sound. When no sound is heard, the nurse checks the equipment before assuming a client finding. Absence of bowel sounds is a significant finding that is confirmed only after listening long enough with working equipment.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Silence is only meaningful after the equipment has been ruled out; absent sounds are judged after listening for several minutes with working equipment.
- B – The diaphragm is normally used for bowel sounds, and the bell can be closed off in the same way.
- C – Cleaning and warming improve comfort and infection control but do not restore sound transmission through a closed chestpiece.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
114Question
A nurse is demonstrating indirect percussion of the posterior chest to a new graduate. Which technique is correct?
- Leave the striking finger resting on the surface after each tap so the vibration can be felt
- Keep the wrist stiff and swing the whole arm from the shoulder to deliver one firm blow
- Rest the whole palm flat on the chest and strike the back of the hand with a loosely closed fist
- Rest one middle finger on the chest and strike its distal joint with the other middle finger using a quick wrist motion
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Rest one middle finger on the chest and strike its distal joint with the other middle finger using a quick wrist motion
Topic: indirect percussion technique
In indirect percussion, the non-striking finger is held flat against the chest, and the other finger taps its distal joint with a relaxed, quick wrist action and immediately rebounds so the sound is not dampened.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Resting the striking finger dampens the sound, which should be a brisk tap that rebounds.
- B – A stiff wrist produces a dull, uneven tap and is tiring.
- C – That is a form of blunt percussion, not indirect percussion of the chest.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
115Question
A client is brought in after a motorcycle crash with facial trauma. The client is unresponsive to voice, has snoring respirations with gurgling, and a cervical collar is not yet in place. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Apply a pulse oximeter to the finger
- Start two large-bore intravenous lines
- Open the airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver while a second person holds the head and neck in line
- Obtain a capillary blood glucose
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Open the airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver while a second person holds the head and neck in line
Topic: airway with spine protection
In the primary survey the airway is secured first, with cervical spine protection. A jaw thrust opens the airway without extending the neck, and suction can then clear secretions.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Monitoring is useful but does not relieve the obstruction; the airway comes first.
- B – Circulation access follows airway and breathing.
- D – Glucose is part of the disability step, later in the survey.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
116Question
The nurse is performing the disability (D) step of the primary survey on a client with blunt head trauma. Which assessments belong in this step?
Select all that apply.
- Level of consciousness using AVPU or Glasgow Coma Scale
- Auscultation of breath sounds in all lung fields
- Pupil size and reaction to light
- Palpation of the pelvis for stability
- Movement of all four extremities
- Removal of all clothing to inspect the skin
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, C and E.
- A – Level of consciousness using AVPU or Glasgow Coma Scale
- C – Pupil size and reaction to light
- E – Movement of all four extremities
Topic: disability assessment
Disability is a rapid neurologic assessment: level of consciousness, pupils, and gross movement of the limbs. It identifies brain or cord injury and sets a baseline for change.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Breath sounds are part of the breathing step.
- D – Pelvic stability is checked under circulation (hidden bleeding).
- F – Undressing the client to find injuries is the exposure step.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
117Question
A nurse teaches the parents of a child with asthma about wheezing. Which parent statement shows understanding?
- “Wheezing means the airways have stretched too wide and air rushes through.”
- “When the wheezing stops after the inhaler, the airway swelling is gone too.”
- “Wheezing only occurs with infection, never with smoke or cold air.”
- “Wheezing happens when the airways swell, make extra mucus and tighten, so air squeezes through narrow passages.”
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. “Wheezing happens when the airways swell, make extra mucus and tighten, so air squeezes through narrow passages.”
Topic: mechanism of wheezing
In asthma, inflammation, extra mucus and bronchial muscle tightening narrow the airways, and air moving through the narrowed airways produces the wheeze. Triggers include infections, smoke, cold air and allergens.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Wheezing is caused by narrowing, not widening, of the airways.
- B – A rescue inhaler relaxes muscle, but inflammation can persist without wheezing.
- C – Smoke, cold air and allergens commonly trigger wheezing.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
118Question
A client's monitor shows a regular, narrow-QRS rhythm at 48/min with no visible P waves. Which structure is acting as the pacemaker?
- The sinoatrial node, firing at its usual intrinsic rate of 60 to 100/min
- The AV junction, firing at its intrinsic rate of 40 to 60/min
- The Purkinje fibers, firing at 20 to 40/min
- Atrial muscle, firing at 150 to 250/min
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. The AV junction, firing at its intrinsic rate of 40 to 60/min
Topic: escape pacemaker rates
When the SA node fails, tissues lower in the conduction system take over by automaticity. The AV junction fires at 40 to 60/min and produces a narrow QRS with absent or inverted P waves. Purkinje fibers fire at 20 to 40/min with a wide QRS.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The SA node would show P waves at a rate of 60 to 100.
- C – Purkinje pacing gives a wide QRS and a slower rate.
- D – A rate of 150 to 250 does not match the rhythm.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
119Question
A hospital administrator hesitates to fund a home telemonitoring program for clients with heart failure. Which explanation by the nurse manager best supports its cost effectiveness?
- It removes the need for nurses to visit or call the clients at home because the devices act alone
- Early warning of weight gain and symptoms lets nurses act before emergency visits or readmissions
- It moves most of the cost of care away from the hospital and onto the client's own insurer and family
- It lets clients stop scheduling routine appointments because the devices replace the provider's judgment
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Early warning of weight gain and symptoms lets nurses act before emergency visits or readmissions
Topic: cost effectiveness of telemonitoring
Telemonitoring is cost effective mainly because worsening signs are detected early, so treatment can be adjusted at home before the client needs costly emergency care or hospital readmission. Devices support, but do not replace, nursing and provider judgment.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Devices send data, but nurses still review it and contact clients.
- C – Moving costs to someone else does not make the program cost effective.
- D – Clients still need routine visits, and devices do not replace clinical judgment.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
120Question
Hospital executives must divide a limited budget among competing service lines, and the chief nursing officer wants the decision process to be seen as fair, open and subject to challenge. Which framework should the nurse leader recommend?
- Accountability for Reasonableness (A4R)
- Situation-background-assessment-recommendation (SBAR)
- Plan-do-study-act (PDSA) cycle
- Root cause analysis after a sentinel event
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Accountability for Reasonableness (A4R)
Topic: priority-setting framework
Accountability for Reasonableness sets conditions that make priority-setting decisions legitimate: the reasons are relevant, the decisions are made public, there is a way to appeal and revise them, and the process is enforced. It is meant for organizational resource allocation.
Why the others are wrong
- B – SBAR is a structured way to hand over clinical information; it does not guide how resources are allocated.
- C – PDSA is a cycle for testing a small practice change; it does not make a funding decision legitimate.
- D – Root cause analysis examines why a serious event happened after it occurs; it is not a priority-setting method.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
121Question
A nurse is percussing the posterior lung fields. For which clients might a dull note reflect chest wall thickness rather than lung disease?
Select all that apply.
- A weightlifter with very developed chest muscles
- A client with a body mass index of 45 and thick subcutaneous tissue
- A thin 25-year-old long-distance runner
- A 6-year-old child with a thin chest wall
- An older adult with a thin frame
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A and B.
- A – A weightlifter with very developed chest muscles
- B – A client with a body mass index of 45 and thick subcutaneous tissue
Topic: percussion limitations
Percussion sets the chest wall and underlying lung in vibration, and thick muscle or fat damps the vibration. This can produce a dull note over normal lung, so the finding is interpreted with caution. A thin chest wall transmits sound well.
Why the others are wrong
- C – A thin chest wall transmits percussion well, so a dull note in this runner would be significant.
- D – A child's thin chest wall transmits sound well, so a dull note would suggest pathology.
- E – A thin frame does not damp vibration, so a dull note should not be dismissed.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
122Question
A nurse inspects the chest of a client who reports shortness of breath. Which findings are of most concern?
Select all that apply.
- Inward movement of one chest segment during inspiration
- Retractions with use of the neck muscles on each breath
- Bluish color of the lips and tongue
- Anteroposterior to transverse diameter of 1:2
- Costal angle of about 90 degrees
- Mild rounding of the upper back in an 82-year-old, unchanged from last year
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Inward movement of one chest segment during inspiration
- B – Retractions with use of the neck muscles on each breath
- C – Bluish color of the lips and tongue
Topic: respiratory distress inspection findings
Paradoxical chest movement suggests flail segment, accessory muscle use and retractions show a high work of breathing, and central cyanosis shows poor oxygenation. The other findings are expected variants or unchanged baseline.
Why the others are wrong
- D – A 1:2 ratio is the normal adult chest shape.
- E – A costal angle of about 90 degrees is normal.
- F – Unchanged mild kyphosis is a baseline variation in older adults.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
123Question
The nurse has taught sleep hygiene to a client who reports difficulty falling and staying asleep. Which statement by the client shows a need for further teaching?
- "I will get up at the same time every morning, including weekends."
- "If I am still awake after about 20 minutes, I will get up and do something quiet until I feel sleepy."
- "A glass of wine at bedtime will help me sleep through the night."
- "I will stop drinking coffee and cola after lunch."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. "A glass of wine at bedtime will help me sleep through the night."
Topic: sleep hygiene
Alcohol may shorten the time to fall asleep, but it fragments sleep, suppresses REM sleep and causes early waking as it is metabolized. Good sleep hygiene avoids alcohol, caffeine and nicotine near bedtime.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A fixed waking time strengthens the body's sleep-wake rhythm.
- B – Leaving the bed when unable to sleep keeps the bed associated with sleep and not with wakefulness.
- D – Caffeine is a stimulant with effects lasting many hours, so avoiding it after midday is appropriate.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
124Question
A client with obstructive sleep apnea has used continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) for one month. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- I put the mask on for daytime naps as well as at night.
- A sleeping pill or a glass of wine at bedtime will help me get used to the mask.
- I will ask about a heated humidifier because my nose gets dry.
- Losing some weight may make my apnea less severe.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. A sleeping pill or a glass of wine at bedtime will help me get used to the mask.
Topic: obstructive sleep apnea and CPAP teaching
Alcohol and sedative-hypnotics relax the muscles of the upper airway and blunt the arousal response, which makes obstruction worse and episodes longer. Clients with sleep apnea are taught to avoid both, particularly near bedtime.
Why the others are wrong
- A – CPAP is used whenever the client sleeps, including naps, so this statement is correct.
- C – Heated humidification is a standard remedy for nasal dryness and improves adherence; the statement is correct.
- D – Excess weight contributes to airway narrowing and weight loss reduces severity; the statement is correct.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
125Question
The nurse reviews a client with schizophrenia. Which observations are negative symptoms?
Select all that apply.
- Little facial expression when told good news
- Very brief, sparse answers to open questions
- Hearing a voice comment on the client's actions
- Does not start any activity unless prompted
- Believes the neighbors are sending signals through the wall
- Little interest in contact with others
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B, D and F.
- A – Little facial expression when told good news
- B – Very brief, sparse answers to open questions
- D – Does not start any activity unless prompted
- F – Little interest in contact with others
Topic: negative symptoms
Negative symptoms are a loss of normal function: flat affect, poverty of speech, lack of motivation and social withdrawal. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms because they are added experiences.
Why the others are wrong
- C – A voice commenting is a hallucination, a positive symptom.
- E – A fixed false belief is a delusion, a positive symptom.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
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