151Question
A hiker is bitten on the forearm by a snake and is anxious. Which first-aid actions are appropriate while awaiting emergency transport?
Select all that apply.
- Keep the client calm and still, and limit movement of the limb
- Remove rings and tight items near the bite before swelling develops
- Apply ice directly to the bite
- Cut across the bite and suck out the venom
- Mark the edge of swelling with the time
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and E.
- A – Keep the client calm and still, and limit movement of the limb
- B – Remove rings and tight items near the bite before swelling develops
- E – Mark the edge of swelling with the time
Topic: snakebite first aid
Reducing movement slows venom spread, jewelry is removed before swelling traps it, and marking swelling helps the team judge progression.
Why the others are wrong
- C – Ice can damage tissue and does not neutralize venom.
- D – Cutting and sucking increase tissue injury and infection and remove little venom.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
152Question
A client who uses a wheelchair and has a hearing loss arrives at a primary care clinic with a friend. Which actions by the nurse help address ableism?
Select all that apply.
- Speak directly to the client and ask how they prefer to communicate
- Direct the questions to the friend because the client may not understand
- Offer help with transfers but wait for the client to say what is needed
- Reflect on personal assumptions about people with disabilities
- Treat the client exactly the same as every other client to stay impartial
- Complete the intake form for the client without asking
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, C and D.
- A – Speak directly to the client and ask how they prefer to communicate
- C – Offer help with transfers but wait for the client to say what is needed
- D – Reflect on personal assumptions about people with disabilities
Topic: addressing ableism
Ableism is discrimination based on assumptions about disability. The nurse speaks directly to the client, asks about preferences, offers help without taking over, and examines personal biases. Treating everyone identically ignores individual access needs.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Directing questions to the friend assumes the client cannot understand or speak for themselves.
- E – Identical treatment ignores the access needs of this client; equity means adapting to need.
- F – Completing the form without asking removes autonomy.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
153Question
A client reports severe right eye pain, halos around lights, blurred vision and nausea. The eye is red and the pupil is mid-dilated and fixed. If the nurse delays reporting these findings, which outcome is the greatest risk?
- Permanent loss of vision from optic nerve damage
- A stroke caused by emboli from the carotid artery
- Scarring of the conjunctiva
- Cataract formation in the same eye within a few days
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Permanent loss of vision from optic nerve damage
Topic: complication of untreated acute angle closure
These findings suggest acute angle-closure glaucoma, in which intraocular pressure rises rapidly. Without prompt treatment, the optic nerve is damaged within hours to days and vision can be permanently lost.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Carotid emboli would cause transient or sudden focal deficits, not this eye picture.
- C – Conjunctival scarring is not a concern in this presentation.
- D – Cataracts develop slowly and are not an immediate consequence of this problem.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
154Question
A nurse shines a penlight into a client's right eye. The right pupil does not constrict, but the left pupil constricts briskly. Which nerve is most likely impaired?
- Left optic nerve (CN II)
- Right oculomotor nerve (CN III)
- Right optic nerve (CN II)
- Left oculomotor nerve (CN III)
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Right oculomotor nerve (CN III)
Topic: pupillary light reflex pathway
The optic nerve carries the light signal in, and the oculomotor nerve carries the signal out to the pupil constrictor muscle. Because the left pupil constricts when light enters the right eye, the right optic nerve is sending the signal correctly and the left oculomotor nerve is working. The failure is in the right oculomotor nerve.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Light is shown to the right eye, so the left optic nerve is not the one carrying this signal.
- C – If the right optic nerve were damaged, no signal would reach either pupil and the left pupil would not constrict.
- D – The left pupil constricted, so the left oculomotor nerve is carrying the signal out.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
155Question
A nurse tests accommodation in a client with normal eye function. The client first looks at a distant object and then at a penlight that is slowly brought toward the bridge of the nose. Which response is expected?
- Pupils dilate and the eyes drift outward
- Pupils constrict and the eyes converge
- Pupils stay the same size and the eyes remain parallel
- Pupils constrict while the eyes turn outward
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Pupils constrict and the eyes converge
Topic: accommodation
With a near target, the normal response is pupillary constriction together with convergence of the eyes, so both eyes stay fixed on the object. Absence of either part suggests a problem with the oculomotor pathway or the brainstem.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Dilation and outward drift is the opposite of the near response.
- C – No pupil change and parallel eyes means the near response is absent, which is abnormal.
- D – The eyes must turn inward, not outward, when the target comes close.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
156Question
A nurse prepares to inspect the nares of a client who has nasal congestion. Which techniques are correct?
Select all that apply.
- Ask the client to tilt the head slightly back
- Gently lift the tip of the nose and shine a penlight into each naris
- Insert a lubricated swab to feel the mucosa for tenderness
- Observe mucosal color and look for drainage, polyps or septal deviation
- Press firmly over the sinuses while looking into the nose
- Have the client hold the breath with the chin on the chest
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and D.
- A – Ask the client to tilt the head slightly back
- B – Gently lift the tip of the nose and shine a penlight into each naris
- D – Observe mucosal color and look for drainage, polyps or septal deviation
Topic: nasal inspection technique
Slight head extension, gentle lifting of the nasal tip and a focused light allow the nurse to see the septum, turbinates and mucosa without instruments entering the nose. The nurse notes color, swelling, discharge, polyps and deviation or perforation of the septum.
Why the others are wrong
- C – Inspection does not require inserting anything; a swab can injure the mucosa and trigger bleeding.
- E – Firm sinus pressure is a palpation technique done separately, not while inspecting the nares.
- F – Flexing the head forward hides the nares and does not help the view.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
157Question
Which client situation calls for a focused assessment rather than a comprehensive health history and examination?
- A client establishing care at the clinic for the first time
- A client admitted for elective surgery who has never been seen at the hospital
- A client who has just entered a long-term care facility
- A client on the second day after surgery who reports new calf pain
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. A client on the second day after surgery who reports new calf pain
Topic: focused versus comprehensive assessment
A focused assessment targets a specific problem or body system, such as new calf pain after surgery that might signal a deep vein thrombosis. A comprehensive assessment is done on first contact to establish a baseline.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A first visit calls for a full history and examination.
- B – A new admission needs a comprehensive baseline.
- C – A new resident needs a comprehensive baseline.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
158Question
A nurse is taking a health history for a 7-year-old child who is accompanied by a parent. Which area is most appropriate to include?
- Retirement plans and sources of income
- Immunization status and past illnesses or injuries reported by the parent
- Menstrual cycle and contraceptive use
- Number of cigarettes smoked per day over the past year
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Immunization status and past illnesses or injuries reported by the parent
Topic: age-appropriate history for a school-age child
Histories are tailored to the client's developmental stage. For a school-age child, the parent supplies immunization status, past illnesses, injuries, growth, school performance and safety exposures.
Why the others are wrong
- A – These concerns relate to adults.
- C – This history is not developmentally appropriate for a 7-year-old.
- D – Detailed tobacco use history is not a priority at this age, though exposure at home is relevant.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
159Question
A client with type 2 diabetes tells the nurse that fresh produce is too costly in their neighborhood, their spouse cooks mostly fried meals, and they do not understand carbohydrate counting. Which plan reflects the most comprehensive approach to health promotion?
- Teach carbohydrate counting, involve the spouse in planning meals and refer the household to a food assistance program
- Advise the client to buy fresh produce despite the cost and to prepare meals independently without the spouse's help
- Refer the client to a dietitian and leave decisions about family meals to the spouse to avoid conflict
- Give the client carbohydrate-counting handouts, explain the diabetic diet and schedule a return visit in three months
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Teach carbohydrate counting, involve the spouse in planning meals and refer the household to a food assistance program
Topic: comprehensive health promotion plan
Effective health promotion addresses the individual's knowledge and skills, the support of family or relationships, and social conditions such as food access. A plan that teaches, involves the spouse and connects the household to community resources covers all three.
Why the others are wrong
- B – This ignores cost and family context and may cause conflict.
- C – Handing decisions over removes the client's active role in self-management.
- D – Education alone ignores the family and cost barriers that the client described.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
160Question
The caregiver of a 20-month-old who has had a third ear infection this year asks what increases the risk. Which factors should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select all that apply.
- Receiving the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine on schedule
- Attending group child care
- Wiping the outer ear with a damp washcloth
- Exposure to cigarette smoke in the home
- Drinking a bottle while lying flat
- Breastfeeding during the first six months
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: B, D and E.
- B – Attending group child care
- D – Exposure to cigarette smoke in the home
- E – Drinking a bottle while lying flat
Topic: otitis media risk factors
Young children have short, horizontal eustachian tubes that drain poorly. Group child care raises exposure to respiratory viruses, smoke irritates the tubes, and drinking while supine allows fluid to pool near the tube opening. Breastfeeding and vaccination are protective.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This vaccine lowers the risk of otitis media.
- C – Gentle external cleaning does not cause middle ear infection.
- F – Breast milk is protective against ear infections.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
161Question
A public health nurse is planning a community blood pressure program. Which documented health disparity should guide where the nurse focuses outreach?
- Black adults have a higher prevalence of hypertension than White adults
- Adults in rural counties have fewer chronic illnesses than adults in cities
- Men in the United States live longer on average than women
- Adults with higher incomes face more barriers to preventive services
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Black adults have a higher prevalence of hypertension than White adults
Topic: adult health disparities
National surveillance shows hypertension is more common and often more severe in Black adults, so outreach should prioritize them. The other statements reverse well-documented patterns: women live longer than men, and people with lower income and rural residents face more barriers and often more chronic illness.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Rural adults generally have higher, not lower, rates of chronic disease.
- C – Women live longer than men in the United States.
- D – Lower income, not higher, is linked to more barriers to preventive care.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
162Question
A client who had a myocardial infarction five days ago is now pain free and stable. The nurse wants to explore modifiable cardiovascular risks before discharge teaching. Which questions are appropriate?
Select all that apply.
- "Describe what you usually eat on a typical day."
- "How many cigarettes or vapes do you use in a day, if any?"
- "When did you last have a tetanus booster?"
- "Have you had any trouble hearing the television?"
- "What kind of physical activity do you get in an ordinary week?"
- "Has your vision changed in the last year?"
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and E.
- A – "Describe what you usually eat on a typical day."
- B – "How many cigarettes or vapes do you use in a day, if any?"
- E – "What kind of physical activity do you get in an ordinary week?"
Topic: cardiovascular risk interview
Diet, tobacco use and physical inactivity are major modifiable cardiovascular risks, so questions about them let the nurse tailor secondary prevention teaching. Questions about immunization, hearing and vision are valid health topics but do not address heart disease risk.
Why the others are wrong
- C – Tetanus status is routine prevention but not a cardiac risk factor.
- D – Hearing is worth screening in general but does not change cardiac risk teaching.
- F – Vision changes are not tied to modifiable heart risk.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
163Question
A client has an arterial line. The monitor now shows a flattened waveform with a low pressure, but the client is alert and a cuff pressure is unchanged. What should the nurse do first?
- Treat the displayed low pressure with a higher vasopressor dose
- Check the system for kinks, loose connections, air, limb position and pressure bag inflation
- Remove the arterial catheter immediately
- Record the new reading as the client's baseline
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Check the system for kinks, loose connections, air, limb position and pressure bag inflation
Topic: damped arterial waveform
A damped waveform with a low reading that does not match the client or the cuff is usually a mechanical problem, such as a kink, air bubbles, clot or pressure bag failure, not a true drop in pressure.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Treating an inaccurate number gives a drug the client does not need.
- C – Removal is not the first step and may lose needed monitoring.
- D – Accepting a faulty reading hides a real change later.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
164Question
A client with a penetrating torso wound is awaiting the operating room. The trauma team orders blood product resuscitation with a lower-than-normal blood pressure goal until bleeding is controlled. Which statement shows the nurse understands the rationale for this approach?
- A lower pressure limits clot disruption and further bleeding until the bleeding source is surgically controlled
- A lower pressure protects the kidneys from damage
- A lower pressure is acceptable because the client will be given vasopressors instead of blood
- A lower pressure is the goal for all trauma clients including those with brain injury
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. A lower pressure limits clot disruption and further bleeding until the bleeding source is surgically controlled
Topic: permissive hypotension
Permissive hypotension is a short-term strategy in uncontrolled hemorrhage: raising pressure to normal too early can dislodge clots and dilute clotting factors. It is used until surgical control and is not appropriate for every client, such as one with a brain injury who needs adequate cerebral perfusion.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Renal protection is not the reason; perfusion is still maintained at a minimum.
- C – Blood products remain the resuscitation fluid; vasopressors are not a substitute for volume.
- D – Brain-injured clients need higher perfusion pressure, so this does not apply to all.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
165Question
A client in a bicycle-versus-car crash has a heart rate of 118/min, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 118/84 mm Hg, cool clammy skin and anxiety. The client states that he feels fine. Which is the best interpretation and action?
- The blood pressure is normal, so no hemorrhage is present; continue routine monitoring
- Anxiety from pain is the cause; give an anxiolytic
- The client is dehydrated; encourage oral fluids
- Findings suggest compensated hemorrhagic shock; report promptly, search for the bleeding source and prepare for blood products
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Findings suggest compensated hemorrhagic shock; report promptly, search for the bleeding source and prepare for blood products
Topic: compensated shock
Young adults compensate for blood loss with tachycardia and vasoconstriction, so blood pressure may stay normal until a large volume is lost. Tachycardia, tachypnea, cool skin and anxiety after trauma are treated as hemorrhage until proven otherwise.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A normal pressure is a late finding; compensated shock is easily missed.
- B – Sedating an anxious trauma client can hide worsening shock and brain injury.
- C – Oral fluids are unsafe in a trauma client who may need surgery.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
166Question
A 9-year-old has had two days of clear watery nasal drainage, sneezing, a scratchy throat, a mild cough and a temperature of 99.8 °F (37.7 °C). The throat is mildly red without exudate. Which type of infection do these findings most likely represent?
- Fungal
- Bacterial
- Parasitic
- Viral
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Viral
Topic: viral versus bacterial presentation
Gradual onset, clear nasal discharge, sneezing, cough, low-grade fever and a mildly red throat without exudate are typical of a viral upper respiratory infection in a child. Bacterial infection tends to be more localized and severe.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Fungal infections of the respiratory tract are uncommon in healthy children and do not present this way.
- B – Bacterial pharyngitis usually brings high fever, tonsillar exudate and tender nodes, without sneezing and clear rhinorrhea.
- C – Parasitic infection is not a cause of acute upper respiratory symptoms like these.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
167Question
A client is admitted with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which precautions should the nurse use?
- Droplet precautions and a surgical mask
- Airborne precautions and an N95 respirator
- Contact precautions and a gown
- Standard precautions only
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Airborne precautions and an N95 respirator
Topic: Tuberculosis isolation
Active pulmonary TB is transmitted via aerosolized droplet nuclei that remain suspended; therefore airborne precautions are required, and the nurse must wear a fit‑tested N95 respirator to filter particles ≤0.3 µm.
Why the others are wrong
- A – TB spreads via airborne droplet nuclei; surgical mask and droplet precautions do not provide adequate protection.
- C – TB spreads via inhaled aerosols, not direct contact; gowns and contact precautions are ineffective.
- D – Standard precautions alone do not block airborne Mycobacterium tuberculosis; airborne isolation is mandatory.
Remember: Airborne TB = N95 respirator, negative pressure room.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
168Question
A nurse has just helped a client with toileting, and the nurse's bare hands are visibly soiled. Which hand hygiene action is correct?
- Rinse the hands under running water for ten seconds
- Put on a new pair of gloves over the soiled hands
- Rub alcohol-based hand sanitizer over the hands for 20 seconds
- Wash with soap and water for at least 20 seconds, covering all surfaces
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Wash with soap and water for at least 20 seconds, covering all surfaces
Topic: hand hygiene after toileting care
When hands are visibly soiled, soap and water with friction for at least 20 seconds is required. Alcohol-based rub is used for hands that are not visibly soiled, and it is not effective against some spore-forming organisms.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Water alone does not remove organisms effectively.
- B – Gloving over soiled hands contaminates the new gloves.
- C – Alcohol-based rub is not enough when hands are visibly soiled.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
169Question
A visitor is about to enter the room of a client on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile infection and asks whether alcohol-based hand gel is enough. What should the nurse teach?
- Alcohol-based gel is enough as long as it is rubbed in for at least twenty seconds
- Wash hands with soap and water before entering and after leaving the room
- Gloves alone are sufficient, so hand hygiene can be skipped
- Hand cleaning is needed only on leaving, because the client is the source of the organism
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Wash hands with soap and water before entering and after leaving the room
Topic: hand hygiene for spore-forming organisms
C. difficile forms spores that alcohol does not reliably kill, so washing with soap and water removes them mechanically. Visitors, like staff, clean their hands before entering and after leaving the room.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Alcohol does not reliably kill C. difficile spores, however long it is rubbed in.
- C – Gloves can have defects and are removed with contamination risk; hand hygiene is still required.
- D – Hands must be clean before entering to protect the client and after leaving to protect others.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
170Question
A client rescued from a house fire is confused and has a headache and nausea. The pulse oximeter reads 99%. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Accept the SpO2 reading and place the client on room air
- Give an antiemetic and a sedative to calm the client
- Apply 100% oxygen through a non-rebreather mask
- Encourage the client to breathe deeply in fresh air without oxygen
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Apply 100% oxygen through a non-rebreather mask
Topic: carbon monoxide poisoning
Carbon monoxide binds hemoglobin and standard pulse oximeters misread it as oxygenated hemoglobin, so SpO2 can look normal. High-flow 100% oxygen is started at once to displace carbon monoxide.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Pulse oximetry is unreliable with carbon monoxide.
- B – Sedation masks neurologic change and does not treat the poisoning.
- D – Fresh air alone clears carbon monoxide far more slowly than 100% oxygen.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
171Question
During a clinic visit, a client says, "I've been feeling dizzy lately." Which response by the nurse is best?
- "Describe what dizzy feels like for you."
- "Let me take your blood pressure while you stand up."
- "Have you been drinking enough water lately?"
- "Dizziness is common and usually nothing to worry about."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. "Describe what dizzy feels like for you."
Topic: clarifying a symptom
Clients use "dizzy" for lightheadedness, spinning, unsteadiness or near-fainting, which have different causes. An open-ended request to describe the sensation lets the nurse gather an accurate symptom description before choosing tests or actions.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Measuring the pressure may be useful later but jumps ahead before the symptom is described.
- C – This leading question assumes dehydration and may cut off other information.
- D – Reassurance without knowing the cause can overlook a serious problem.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
172Question
A nurse palpates enlarged lymph nodes in a client's neck. Which findings are of greatest concern for a serious disorder such as malignancy?
Select all that apply.
- Nodes that are fused together in a clump
- Nodes that have enlarged progressively for several weeks without pain
- Nodes that are tender and warm with a sore throat for three days
- Soft, mobile nodes that are smaller than 1 cm
- Discrete nodes that shrink as a cold resolves
- Nodes that are hard and fixed to underlying tissue
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and F.
- A – Nodes that are fused together in a clump
- B – Nodes that have enlarged progressively for several weeks without pain
- F – Nodes that are hard and fixed to underlying tissue
Topic: suspicious lymph node characteristics
Hard, fixed, matted or progressively enlarging painless nodes raise concern for lymphoma or metastatic cancer. Tender, soft, mobile nodes that accompany infection and shrink as it resolves are usually reactive.
Why the others are wrong
- C – Tender, warm nodes with an acute infection are usually reactive.
- D – Small, soft, mobile nodes are usually benign.
- E – Nodes that regress with the illness are reactive.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
173Question
A client weighs 154 pounds. The nurse needs the weight in kilograms to check a weight-based dose. What is the weight in kilograms?
- 338.8 kg
- 77 kg
- 70 kg
- 35 kg
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. 70 kg
Topic: pound to kilogram conversion
One kilogram equals 2.2 pounds, so divide the weight in pounds by 2.2: 154 divided by 2.2 equals 70 kg.
Why the others are wrong
- A – 338.8 comes from multiplying by 2.2 instead of dividing.
- B – 77 comes from dividing by 2 instead of 2.2.
- D – 35 comes from dividing by 4.4 and is half the correct value.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
174Question
A nurse counts an apical pulse for a full minute in a 6-hour-old newborn who is resting quietly and obtains a rate of 146 beats/min with a regular rhythm. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
- Tachycardia that must be reported to the provider immediately
- Bradycardia that requires repeating the count at the brachial site
- Within the expected range for a newborn, so it is documented
- Abnormal, because the normal newborn rate is the same as an adult's
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Within the expected range for a newborn, so it is documented
Topic: newborn heart rate
The normal newborn heart rate is about 120 to 160 beats/min while awake and may dip lower during sleep. A regular rate of 146 in a quiet newborn is normal and is documented.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Tachycardia in a newborn is a rate well above the normal range, not 146.
- B – This rate is not slow for a newborn.
- D – Newborn rates are much faster than adult rates.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
175Question
A nurse assesses a newborn two hours after birth. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- Expiratory grunting with sternal retractions
- Heart rate of 138 beats/min while the newborn sleeps
- Respirations of 50 with a pause under 10 seconds
- Bluish hands and feet with a pink trunk and lips
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Expiratory grunting with sternal retractions
Topic: newborn respiratory distress
Grunting, retractions and nasal flaring are signs of respiratory distress. Acrocyanosis with pink lips, a sleeping heart rate in the 120s to 140s, and brief pauses in breathing under 20 seconds are common in newborns.
Why the others are wrong
- B – A sleeping heart rate near 138 is within the normal newborn range.
- C – Respirations near 50 and brief pauses of under 20 seconds are normal periodic breathing.
- D – Acrocyanosis with pink lips and trunk is expected in the first hours.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
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